ISTQB Question Pattern and Tips to Solve

By Vijay

By Vijay

I'm Vijay, and I've been working on this blog for the past 20+ years! I’ve been in the IT industry for more than 20 years now. I completed my graduation in B.E. Computer Science from a reputed Pune university and then started my career in…

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Updated March 4, 2024

In this tutorial, we will be giving you the ISTB paper pattern along with more tips on how to solve the questions quickly.

To start with, here are 10 sample ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ questions with a detailed explanation for each answer.

ISTQB Question Pattern and Tips to Solve

ISTQB Question Patterns and Tips to Solve

The ISTQB questions are formatted in such a way that the answers look much similar to one another. People often tend to choose the one which they are more familiar with. However, it is always advisable to read the question carefully twice or thrice or even more than that, until they are clear about what is being asked.

Later, look at the options carefully. The options are chosen to confuse the candidates. To choose the correct answer, we should start eliminating them one by one. Go through each option and check whether it is appropriate or not.

If you end up selecting more than one option, then repeat the above logic for the answers that you have selected. This will definitely work. Before you start with the question papers, please read the material thoroughly. Practice as many papers as possible. This will help a lot because, when we solve the papers, we apply the logic that we know.

ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ Sample Questions with Answers

#1) Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools that are a part of which phase?

a) Test Implementation and execution
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting
d) Test Closure Activities

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: The name suggests that these activities are part of the actual implementation cycle. So it does not fall under set-up
b) Option b: Analysis and design activities come before implementation. Test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of this activity.
c) Option c: These are post-implementation activities
d) Option d: These are related to closing activities. And this is the last activity.

So, here the answer is ‘B’

#2) Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing Test Cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating a test suite from test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verify whether the test environment has been set up correctly or not.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Evaluating the options:

Let’s follow a different approach in this case. As seen from the above options, determining the exit criteria is definitely not a part of test implementation and execution. So choose the option where (iv) is false. This filters out ‘b’ and ‘d’.

We need to select only from ‘a’ and ‘c’ now. We only need to analyze the option (iii) as (i) and (ii) are marked as true in both cases. Verification of the test environment is a part of the implementation activity. Hence the option (iii) is true. This leaves the only option as ‘a’.

So, here the answer is ‘A’

#3) A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following?

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

Evaluating the options:

Let’s use the approach implemented in question no. 2 here. Test scripts are not a part of the test plan (this must be clear). So choose the options where (ii) is false. So we end up selecting ‘b’ and ‘d’. Now evaluate the option (i), as the option (iii) and (iv) are already given as true in both the cases. Test items are a part of the test plan. Test items are modules or features that will be tested and these will be a part of the test plan as well.

So, here the answer is ‘B’

#4) One of the fields on the form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify invalid Equivalence class.

a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21

Evaluating the options:

In this case, we should first identify which are valid and invalid Equivalence Classes.

Invalid Class | Valid Class | Invalid Class
Below 18 | 18 to 25 | 26 and above

Option ‘a’ falls under the invalid class. Options ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ fall under valid class.

So, here the answer is ‘A’

#5) In an Examination, a candidate has to score a minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22

Evaluating the options:

Let’s use the approach given in question 4. Identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.

Invalid Class | Valid Class | Invalid Class
Below 24 | 24 to 40 | 41 and above

The question is to identify valid equivalence values. So all the values must be of the “Valid class” only.

a) Option a: all the values are not from a valid class
b) Option b: all the values are not from a valid class
c) Option c: all the values are from a valid class
d) Option d: all the values are not from a valid class

So, here the answer is ‘C’

#6) Which of the following statements regarding Static Testing is false?

a) Static testing requires running of tests through the code
b) Static testing includes desk checking
c) Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Is wrong. Static testing has nothing to do with the code
b) Option b: It is correct, static testing does include desk checking
c) Option c: It is correct, it includes reviews and inspections
d) Option d: It is correct, it can give measurements such as Cyclomatic Complexity

So, here the answer is ‘A’

#7) Which of the following does Verification involve?

i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check if we have built the right product or not.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: The quality of a product can be checked only after building it.
Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
b) Option b: Verification checks if we have built the right product or not.
c) Option c: It does not help in developing the product
d) Option d: It does not involve in any monitory activities.

So, here the answer is ‘B’

#8) What is Component Testing also known as?

i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing.

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
d) All of the above is true

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: It is correct, component testing is also called as Unit testing.
b) Option b: Not sure (but as all the options indicate this as true, we can conclude that Program testing is also called as unit testing)
c) Option c: It is correct, component testing is also called as Module testing.
d) Option d: This is wrong. System component testing comes under System testing.

So, here the answer is ‘A’

#9) What is Link Testing also known as?

a) Component Integration testing
b) Component System Testing
c) Component Sub System Testing
d) Maintenance testing

Evaluating the options:

As the name suggests, this testing is performed by linking (say modules). Now if we look at the options, only option ‘a’ is performed by linking or integrating modules/components.

So, here the answer is ‘A’

#10)
ISTQB questions 10

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65-year-old married person, residing in Colombo.
a) A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B – Issue membership, offer no discount. B
b) A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer a discount. C
c) A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
d) A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Issue membership with 10% discount.

Evaluating the options:

ISYQB answer 10

Explanation:
For TC1: follow the path in green color
(The person is an Indian resident, so select only ‘True’ options.
The person is aged between 18-55, so select only ‘True’
The person is married, so again select only ‘True’
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule 4’ will be applied. That is, issue membership and no discount)

For TC3: follow the path in blue color
(The person is not an Indian resident, so select only ‘False’ (under Rule 1)
The person is not aged between 18-55. No need to select any path, as it is written: “Don’t care”.
The person is married. No need to select any path, as it is written: “Don’t care”.
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule1’ will be applied, That is, Don’t issue membership and no discount.)

So, here the answer is ‘C’

Note: The answers are based on the writer’s own experience and judgment and may not be 100% correct. If you feel any corrections are required please discuss in the comments below.

About the Author: We are glad to welcome ‘Sandhya’ to the softwaretestinghelp.com writer’s board. Sandhya has extensive experience in the software testing field and helps many software testers in clearing the testing certification exams like ISTQB.

Please feel free to ask any questions related to the ISTQB exam and testing certifications in the comment section below.


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249 thoughts on “ISTQB Question Pattern and Tips to Solve”

  1. Dear Sandhya,

    The way you have provided above really helps to find the correct answer.Thanks for the logic.

    I am planning to give ISTQB exam in one months time and not very sure what to study to clear certification with good marks.Could you please help on this?

    Even I would like to know what should be the study material and what to study along with the current pattern and procedures.

    Looking forward for your reply.

    Thank you!!

    Regards,
    Shobha

    Reply
  2. Hi all,
    I have given ISTQB 14 May 2011 Exam.I have studied throughly the book Black Rex+all the dumps.But me not able to clear it.After attempting the Paper ,I felt Paper was bit tough not based on these dumps.
    I guess some paper pattern has been changed.
    Can you arrange Papers of 14th May 2011 exam.
    Can you give me some latest sample paper that can help me in clearing ISTQB foundation level certification.
    I think you are the right person who can help me and guide me
    Thanks a ton for yr help.Hoping for your reply soon
    Anybody can help me then
    Mail me at deepa.goel74@yahoo.com

    Reply
  3. Hi Sandhya,

    Its a nice article.
    I’m planning to do the ISTQB foundation level.
    It is certainly helpful for me. Please keep on posting some more articles on ISTQB foundation level like this one. Carrying on the good work. Thanks a lot.

    Arijit Dhar
    Kolkata

    Reply
  4. Hi Sandhya, good explanation above..I am planning to appear for ISTQB foundation , could you please provide me dumps to anil040481@gmail.com..and pls let me know that what is the probabilty of questions form dumps we get generaly from any site

    Reply
  5. hi sandhya,

    Good Article, Evaluating Options are very nice

    Keep posting for ISTQB advanced exams also.

    Where i can get ISTQB Functional Tester Material?

    Reply
  6. ISTQB Foundation level exam Sample paper – II
    For more testing free downloads Visit

    Q1 A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to endusers
    is called:
    a) an error
    b) a fault
    c) a failure
    d) a defect

    Q2 Regression testing should be performed:
    v) every week
    w) after the software has changed
    x) as often as possible
    y) when the environment has changed
    z) when the project manager says
    a) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
    b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
    c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
    d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false
    Q3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following
    except
    a) test items
    b) test deliverables
    c) test tasks
    d) test specifications
    Q4 When should testing be stopped?
    a) when all the planned tests have been run
    b) when time has run out
    c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
    d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
    Q5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and
    99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests
    for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?
    a) 1000, 50000, 99999
    b) 9999, 50000, 100000
    c) 10000, 50000, 99999
    d) 10000, 99999, 100000
    Q6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
    i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
    ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
    iii. early test design can find faults
    iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
    v. early test design normally takes more effort
    a) i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
    b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
    c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
    d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
    Q7 Non-functional system testing includes:
    a) testing to see where the system does not function correctly
    b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
    c) testing a system function using only the software required for that function
    d) testing for functions that should not exist
    Q8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
    a) auditing conformance to ISO 9000
    b) status accounting of configuration items
    c) identification of test versions
    d) controlled library access
    Q9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for
    integration testing in the small?
    a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
    b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
    c) to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
    d) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
    Q10 What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
    a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
    b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
    c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
    d) to determine when to stop testing
    Q11 Consider the following statements:
    i. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
    ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
    iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
    iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments.
    a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
    b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
    c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
    d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
    Q12 Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum
    number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
    Read p
    Read q
    IF p+q > 100 THEN
    Print “Large”
    ENDIF
    IF p > 50 THEN
    Print “p Large”
    ENDIF
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    Q13 Consider the following statements:
    i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
    ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
    iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
    iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
    v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
    a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
    b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
    c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
    d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
    Q14 Functional system testing is:
    a) testing that the system functions with other systems
    b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
    c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
    d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
    Q15 Incidents would not be raised against:
    a) requirements
    b) documentation
    c) test cases
    d) improvements suggested by users
    Q16 Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
    Management?
    a) operating systems
    b) test documentation
    c) live data
    d) user requirement documents
    Q17 Maintenance testing is:
    a) updating tests when the software has changed
    b) testing a released system that has been changed
    c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
    d) testing to maintain business advantage
    Q18 What can static analysis NOT find?
    a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
    b) unreachable (“dead”) code
    c) memory leaks
    d) array bound violations
    Q19 Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
    a) state transition testing
    b) LCSAJ
    c) syntax testing
    d) boundary value analysis
    Q20 Beta testing is:
    a) performed by customers at their own site
    b) performed by customers at the software developer’s site
    c) performed by an Independent Test Team
    d) performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
    Q21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by
    developers, and which by an independent system test team?
    i. static analysis
    ii. performance testing
    iii. test management
    iv. dynamic analysis
    a) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
    b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
    c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
    d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
    Q22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
    a) finding faults in the system
    b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
    c) testing the system with other systems
    d) testing from a business perspective
    Q23 Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
    a) black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement
    technique
    b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement
    technique
    c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
    d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design
    technique
    Q24 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
    a) inspection is the most formal review process
    b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
    c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
    d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
    Q25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
    following, EXCEPT:
    a) calculating expected outputs
    b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
    c) recording test inputs
    d) reading test values from a data file
    Q26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
    a) re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks
    for unexpected side-effects
    b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the
    original fault has been removed
    c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
    d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
    Q27 Expected results are:
    a) only important in system testing
    b) only used in component testing
    c) most useful when specified in advance
    d) derived from the code
    Q28 What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including
    metrics:
    a) walkthrough
    b) inspection
    c) management review
    d) post project review
    Q29 Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
    a) component testing
    b) non-functional system testing
    c) user acceptance testing
    d) maintenance testing
    Q30 What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
    a) setting up forms and databases
    b) analyzing metrics and improving processes
    c) writing the documents to be inspected
    d) time spent on the document outside the meeting
    Q31 Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
    a) to find faults in the software
    b) to prove that the software has no faults
    c) to give confidence in the software
    d) to find performance problems
    Q32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review
    processes:
    1. led by the author
    2. undocumented
    3. no management participation
    4. led by a moderator or leader
    5. uses entry and exit criteria
    s) inspection
    t) peer review
    u) informal review
    v) walkthrough
    a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
    b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
    c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
    d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
    Q33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
    a) business process-based testing
    b) performance, load and stress testing
    c) usability testing
    d) top-down integration testing
    Q34 Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
    a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behavior
    b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
    c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
    d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
    Q35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
    a) ISO/IEC 12207
    b) BS 7925-1
    c) ANSI/IEEE 829
    d) ANSI/IEEE 729
    Q36 The cost of fixing a fault:
    a) is not important
    b) increases the later a fault is found
    c) decreases the later a fault is found
    d) can never be determined
    Q37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the
    Test Documentation Standard?
    a) what is not to be tested
    b) test environment properties
    c) quality plans
    d) schedules and deadlines
    Q38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
    a) no, because they apply to development documentation
    b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
    c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
    d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
    Q39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
    a) measuring response times
    b) recovery testing
    c) simulating many users
    d) generating many transactions
    Q40 Error guessing is best used:
    a) after more formal techniques have been applied
    b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
    c) by inexperienced testers
    d) after the system has gone live
    For more testing free downloads Visit https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com
    Question Answer
    1 C
    2 C
    3 D
    4 D
    5 C
    6 A
    7 B
    8 A
    9 C
    10 D
    11 B
    12 B
    13 D
    14 C
    15 D
    16 C
    17 B
    18 C
    19 B
    20 A
    21 A
    22 D
    23 A
    24 D
    25 A
    26 A
    27 C
    28 B
    29 D
    30 C
    31 B
    32 A
    33 D
    34 A
    35 B
    36 B
    37 C
    38 C
    39 B
    40 A

    Reply
  7. Very good article.
    Just one correction …
    I think the answer for ques no 7 should be “D” instead of “B”…
    also kindly confirm on this..

    Reply
  8. Hi Sandhya
    Really informative
    Can I have some questions for ISTQB advanced level please. It would be great If you could post something on ISTQB advanced level preparation or point me to where I can find some information on this.

    Reply
  9. Sandya , Plz send me the material and 2012 dumps for ISTQB Foundation Level exam. Iam appearing on 22nd Sept-2012

    Reply
  10. Hi Sandhya,

    For 10th question,

    I think Major part of the Question is missing. Please provide the question.

    Thanks.

    Reply
  11. Hi Satish –

    can you please send the responses to the questions you posted (kandhu73@gmail.com)

    thanks
    kandhu

    Reply
  12. Hi Sandhya,
    I have recently given ISTQB FL and i think pattern and question types are quite changed then mentioned here…can u provide tips on such new questions…

    Reply
  13. Hi Sandhya,

    Very nice article, it would be very helpful, if you could post this kind of questions for all topics for ISTQB foundation level.

    Reply
  14. hai sandhya,
    i practiced istqb dumbs.that is not helping to
    sucess of istqb .any method is there for success of istqb.any new previous papers avialable .i have only one chance for write istqb exam .i didn’t get certified.my job was gone.please suggest how to sucess istqb.

    Reply
  15. Foundations of Software testing By Dorothy Graham
    read this book to clear ISTQB foundation level. Its an excellent way of preparing for ISTQB exam.

    Reply
  16. hi ,sandya i read ur istqb question and answer i waan to give istqb exam so would u help me to give me link for the all question paper and answer

    Reply
  17. Hi Sandhya,

    Am going to give ISTQB exam this saturday..I have gon ethrought the book and the materials and few mock papers.

    Can anyone please provide me the latest papers of ISTQB Foundation level????

    Please help me out to clear the exam.
    Mail me at priyankakhandelwal96@gmail.com

    Reply
  18. Hi, Sandya,
    Could you please help me ? I need to know how to calculate statement coverage and branch coverage as it is very confusing.
    Tks.

    Reply
  19. Kindly update with 1 minor correction..

    For the question 6, the correct answer is ‘A’,
    Explanation is correct,but the final answer is marked as ‘D’ which is wrong.

    Reply
  20. Thank you all for your feedback 🙂
    As of now, I am planning to cover ‘Foundation level’ only. Will keep posting question/answers from sample papers for FL.

    Reply
  21. ? Wherever you decide to sit the exam, always make sure you arrive with plenty of time to spare. The last thing you need is to be stressed before you take the exam. You can use any spare time on the day of your exam to read through your revision notes.

    ? The actual exam will be multiple-choice, so make sure you answer every question. If you really don’t know the answer, then take a guess. You can normally eliminate two of the incorrect answers by using common sense.

    ? Make sure you read through all of the answers, as sometimes you might immediately think the first answer is the correct one. When in fact all of the answers are correct, in which case there will be an answer of ‘All of the above’ present.

    ? The current required pass mark is 25 correct answers out of 40 within a time limit of one hour. This should be plenty of time to answer all of the questions, so don’t rush

    Reply
  22. Hi, please help me solve the questions related to :

    Given a code and identifying the Statement Coverage, Decision Coverage, Path Coverage etc.

    Thanks!!

    Reply
  23. Hi Sandhya,
    I am confused about Question 7 where your evaluation does not match with the option. You said The quality of the product can be checked only after building it.
    Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
    Then why the answer is option B where it is written verification checks that we have built the right product.

    Reply
  24. Hai sandhya i planned of doing ISTQB i want to know some information regarding ISTQB can u just forward me d sample question papers of ISTQB

    Reply
  25. Hi Sandhya, Very nice article. Could you please explain few questions on decision coverage and branch coverage too as they are very confusing.
    For ex:
    Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-
    Read P
    Read Q
    If p+q > 100 then
    Print “Large”
    End if
    If p > 50 then
    Print “pLarge”
    End if
    a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
    b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
    c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
    d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

    Thanks a lot,
    Ritu Gakher

    Reply
  26. Hello every1 iam a 2008 passed out with an year of exp in diff domain ( not testing ) iam getting trained on it.. presently out of job , would u please help me if ISTQB certification helps to get a job .. ( exp in embedded domain ) veerudsce@gmail.com

    Reply
  27. 44) What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects of that change show up in some test?
    a) Desk checking
    b) Debugging a program
    c) A mutation error(I haven’t come across this term : wild guess)
    d) Introducing mutation

    is the ans D???

    Reply
  28. Hi Sandya,

    These questions with evaluation is very useful, i am using the same while doing exam but i have not cleared the exam yet?? i got 25/40 in my last attempt recently. can you help me to clear that exam as i am keenly interested to do this certification

    Reply
  29. Hai Sandya……..

    I need a Pave to my Carrier,Iam so confused about my Carrier

    I’m a Diploma holder having 4 year Exp in software industry as a technical support , but i intersted to jump up my Carrier in software testing job , for that I had a software testing both Manual/Automation Course, I didnt get any interview call,
    I think its better to take ISTQB/CASTE certification , for more opportunity,
    I request you to Pls guide me for become a tester
    pls give me ur valuable advice
    My E-mail id vipin.ganesh@gmail.com
    Hopefully for your guidance

    Reply
  30. Hi,
    I am appearing for ISTQB certification on march 10th.cn u pls give an overview about how tricky / easy the questions would be .

    Thank u in advance.

    Reply
  31. Hi Sandhya, Good article those who are preparing for ISTQB foundation. Please explain few questions on statement coverage and branch coverage, how to calulate

    Reply
  32. Q. 29: Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing
    A. Test Analysis
    B. Test Design
    C. Test Execution
    D. Test Planning

    Q. 40: Objective of review meeting is
    A. To identify problems with design
    B. To solve the problems with design
    C. Both A. and B
    D. None of the above.

    IF A > B THEN
    C = A – B
    ELSE
    C = A + B
    ENDIF
    Read D
    IF C = D Then
    Print “Error”
    ENDIF
    A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q. 11: Test managers should not:
    A. Report on deviations from the project plan
    B. Sign the system off for release
    C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
    D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
    E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

    Q. 5: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is
    called:
    A. A dynamic analysis tool
    B. A test execution tool
    C. A debugging tool
    D. A test management tool
    E. A configuration management tool(Answer is incorrect)

    Q. 12: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.
    The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip
    the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which
    of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?
    A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
    B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
    C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
    D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

    Q. 35: Where may functional testing be performed?
    A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
    B. At all test levels.
    C. At all levels above integration testing.
    D. At the acceptance testing level only.

    Q. 33: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?
    A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
    B. Initiating corrective actions.
    C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
    D. Measuring and analyzing results.

    Q. 23: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life
    cycle:
    i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
    ii. Code b Acceptance tests
    iii. Low-level design c System tests
    iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
    A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
    B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
    C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
    D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

    Q. 31: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover
    the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO
    Exhibit:
    A. D, A, B, C.
    B. A, B, C, D.
    C. D, A, B.
    D. A, B, C.

    Q. 27: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
    A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
    B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
    C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.
    D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed

    Q. 47: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision
    coverage for the following fragment of code.
    if width > length
    then
    biggest_dimension = width
    else
    biggest_dimension = length
    end_if
    The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above.
    print “Biggest dimension is ” & biggest_dimension
    print “Width: ” & width
    print “Length: ” & length
    How many more test cases are required?
    A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.
    B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be
    used to provide 100% decision coverage.
    C. None, existing test cases can be used.
    D. One more test case will be required for 100″ statement coverage.

    Q. 31: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates tge operating environment
    in any way is considered non-invasive
    A. True
    B. False

    Q. 27: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes
    A. Programming standard violations
    B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
    C. Security vulnerabilities
    D. All Above

    Q. 20: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design
    specifications.
    A. Test Summary report
    B. Test Log
    C. Test Incident Report
    D. Test Script

    Q. 19: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of
    decision directions executed by the test case designed is called
    A. Condition coverage
    B. Decision/Condition coverage
    C. Decision Coverage
    D. Branch coverage

    Q. 18: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that
    each program function is operational is called
    A. Black-box testing
    B. Glass-box testing
    C. Grey-box testing
    D. White-box testing

    Q. 14: Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
    A. Dynamic Analysis tool.
    B. Test Execution tool.
    C. Static Analysis tool.
    D. Security tool

    Q. 2: Which of the following statements is not true
    A. Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of
    whole system
    B. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
    C. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
    D. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

    Q. 16: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies
    that data recovery is properly performed. The following should be checked for
    correctness
    1. Re-initialization
    2. Restart
    3. Data Recovery
    4. Check Point Mechanism
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 1, 2 and 3
    C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    D. 2 and 4

    Q. 13: Verification involves which of the following :-
    i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
    ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
    iii. Helps in developing the product
    iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
    A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
    B. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
    C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    D. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

    Reply
  33. Hi sandhya,
    Thanks 4 helping but i have 1 query

    For question no 6 i think ans is ‘C’ not ‘A’,bcoz in static testing we check
    1.system without execution and
    2.verify s/w or application fulfill the SRS

    Reply
  34. Hi sandhya,
    This is good site for people preparing for istqb fl exam.
    please can u give me explanation for this question as iam unable to understand

    1.Given the Following program
    IF X = Z
    THEN Statement 2;
    END

    McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
    a. 2 b.3 c.4 d.5

    Reply
  35. this is the first time i appearing for ISTQB certifiction course so can u help which book i need to refer for foundation level course and the aouthor name

    Reply
  36. Hi Sandhya… Nice help… Can you please take up some questions about the statement and branch coverage, including explaination. In almost all papers there are atleast 2 questions in that area and I dont understand how to solve thse.

    Reply
  37. Hi Sandhya,

    I’m planning to go for ISTQB foundation level.Can you please send out material and 2012 dumps for ISTQB Foundation Level exam.

    Thanks in advance.

    Reply
  38. Hi Sandhya,
    I have given ISTQB 14 May 2011 Exam.I have studied throughly the book Black Rex+all the dumps.But me not able to clear it.After attempting the Paper ,I felt Paper was bit tough not based on these dumps.
    I guess some paper pattern has been changed.
    Can you arrange Papers of 14th May 2011 exam.
    Can you give me some latest sample paper that can help me in clearing ISTQB foundation level certification.
    I think you are the right person who can help me and guide me
    Thanks a ton for yr help.Hoping for your reply soon

    Reply
  39. Hi Sandhya,

    I’m giving ISTQB Foundation Level Exam this year in 2013. Could you please help me in providing the new format questions with answers (and suggestions if any) from your side.

    Reply
  40. 2nd question answer is C.
    Environment availability will be verified in Test Analysis and Design phase, Not in Implementation and execution phase.

    Reply
  41. Gr8, it’s very nice and well thought technique of evaluating the questions.
    Good going, keep us informed about more such things in future.
    thxs

    Reply
  42. @ Varalakshmi

    To solve the problem easily, draw a flow chart. Only one closed loop will be formed in the flow chart. McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is “Closed loops +1” = 2

    Hope u got it.

    Reply
  43. Hello,
    Can any one tell whether there is any training centers available in Chennai for writing ISTQB eaxm.

    Thanks in advance

    Reply
  44. Hi There,

    I need you help to get answer and solution to this kind of questions. Please explain answer and solution , please do give correct option only. You can mail me answer at given email address

    Q12. Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
    Read P
    Read Q
    IF P+Q > 100
    THENPrint “Large”
    ENDIFIf P > 50
    THENPrint “P Large”
    ENDIF

    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q13. Given the following:
    Switch PC on
    Start “outlook”
    IF outlook appears
    THEN
    Send an email
    Close outlook
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    Q14. Given the following code, which is true:
    IF A > B
    THEN
    C = A – B
    ELSE
    C = A + B
    ENDIF
    Read D
    IF C = D
    Then
    Print “Error”
    ENDIF
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q15. Consider the following:
    Pick up and read the newspaper
    Look at what is on television
    If there is a program that you are interested in watching
    Then
    switch the the television on and watch the program
    Otherwise
    Continue reading the newspaper
    If there is a crossword in the newspaper
    Then
    try and complete the crossword
    a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
    b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
    c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
    d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
    e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

    Reply
  45. Please give me the solution for below Questions ASAP. It is urgent.

    1) write a program which should accept and integer and print output as below

    eg. 1 *

    2 *
    ***
    *

    3 *
    ***
    *****
    ***
    *

    2) for the code below,analyse and list all possible test cases

    read p
    read q
    if p+q>100
    print “large”
    endif
    if p>50
    print “p large”
    endif

    Reply
  46. hi sandhya, good article, evaluating options are very nice.
    i like easy understanding all questions and can i found easy results.

    Reply
  47. its very much useful article…….can you post detail of link or any other source wher I can get the Foundation level syallbus

    Reply
  48. Great article…

    You need to do a small correction..

    For the question 6, the correct answer is ‘A’, though the explanation is given correctly,but the final answer is marked as ‘D’.

    Reply
  49. Hi, i am a fresher and have done testing course. i have planned to take up ISTQB exam but i am not getting any proper information about it. Please give me the details how to take up the exam where to get registered how to prepare and all. I heard without getting coaching in one of the institute one cannot clear the exam and freshers like me cannot clear this exam. I am very much interested to take up this exam but lack of information about it. so any one please please please help me. I bought a book which was said to be enough to prepare for exam but i found nothing in tat book. where can i get the proper study material to prepare and is it necessary to take coaching for this and as i am a fresher will it add value for my resume can i hope for a better job in the industry. kindly any one clear my doubts and please please help me in this. i want to know where i can get study material to take up this exam.

    Reply
  50. Hi Sandhya,

    I’m planning to do the ISTQB foundation level.
    Is that only ISTQB book is enough for preparation or still i need to have some other knowledge?

    Reply
  51. Hi sandha,
    Thanks 4 helping but i have 1 query

    For question no 6 i think ans is ‘C’ not ‘A’,bcoz in static testing we check
    1.system without execution and
    2.verify s/w or application fulfill the SRS

    Reply
  52. Beneficial article 🙂

    Can u plz send me the major topics which i must cover before ISTQB(Foundation lavel) exam.

    Many Thanks,

    Reply
  53. Nice Article…! Thanks.

    Small correction…

    For the 7th Question, Evaluation is correct.

    Answer should be shown as “D” instead of “B”.

    Thanks.

    Reply
  54. Hi sandhya ,
    I am almass am preparing for istqb exam so how to prepare for the exam what is the trick to choose the correct ans pls tell me

    Reply
  55. sandhya its a very good explanation on evaluating the options. you have done a good job.
    I am planning to write foundation level ISTQB exam. so, please advice me what is the exam pattern and how to prepare for exam.

    Reply
  56. would any1 plz give me ur valuable suggestion if getting that ISTQB foundation certification would help me get a job .. n as i said m getting trained in S/W testing ( manual & automation as well) if not wat is advice for me to approach to get a JOB

    Reply
  57. On question 7: There is no right answer. I think the question refers to Validation. If this is the case, the right answer is D. Verification rises the question: “Have we built the product RIGHT?” while VALIDATION is “Have we built the RIGHT product?”

    Reply
  58. @ Shankar (comment #11)
    Only option (i) is correct. Rest are incorrect with respect to Verification. In the evaluation steps, it should be “Option b: Validation checks that we have built the right product.”
    Verification checks that we are building product right.

    Reply
  59. Hi Sandhya, I want to clear ISTQB advance level exam(Test Analyst). Can u plz. send me sample papers for this exam and also guide me how can I prepare for this exam.It would be really helpfull for me. Thanks.

    Reply
  60. hai sandhya am swetha am preparing for istqb exam so how to prepare for the exam what is the trick to choose the correct ans pls tell me

    Reply
  61. Too good………………
    Really helpfull.
    Small change is required…..

    Question 6, the correct answer is ‘A’, though the explanation is given correctly,but the final answer is marked as ‘D’.

    Reply
  62. Question 7. Verification involves which of the following:-

    Explanation and the answer selected seems to be contradicting…

    Explanation:
    b) Option b: Verification checks that we have built the right product.

    Which explains as the statement was correct but the answer was chosen which marks it wrong.

    Answer selected: ‘B’

    Reply
  63. Hi sandhya I am Navatha… I am planning to write foundation level ISTQB exam. So please advice me what is the exam pattern and every thing………..

    Reply
  64. Hi,

    Can anybody answer the below questions?

    1. If an organization has CMM level5, can we say it as TMM Level5?

    2. Does TMM mandate an established procedure for selection and evaluation of testing tools?

    3. Which of the following is not a critical group to testing efforts?
    Managers,
    Business analysts
    Users/clients
    Developers,Testers

    4. What is the relationshipe between TMM and CMM?

    Reply
  65. Hello Sandhya,
    thanx a lot, really great effort.I like very much the 10th question and its way of writing test cases.I have doubt on 6th question bocz you said that three options(b,c and d) are correct and finally selected D is write.
    Finally ur gr8.

    Reply
  66. Hi sandhya,
    It would be great, if you can pls explain me how to solve this problem.

    13. Given the Following program
    if x = Z
    THEN Statement 2;
    END

    McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
    a. 2 b.3 c.4 d.5

    Reply
  67. Hello sandhya,
    I am preparing for ISTQB need to your help. please send me the istqb sample question papers and also guide me to clear the exam

    Reply
  68. I have cleared my “International Standard Testing Qualification Board (ISTQB) Certified Foundation Level Exam Cleared 🙂

    New Victory …………. 🙂

    Heartly Thanks Sandhya and All gr8 ppl who shared their knowledge…….

    Reply
  69. Hi SANDHYA,
    I have recently given ISTQB FL and i think pattern and question types are quite changed.
    Can u provide tips on such new questions…
    Thnxs in Advance..:)

    Reply
  70. Hello All,the following Q & A will help you,while writing ISTQB certification test.
    1 We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
    a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
    b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
    c) We can run different tests in different environments.
    d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
    2 Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
    providing test capture and replay facilities?
    a) Regression testing
    b) Integration testing
    c) System testing
    d) User acceptance testing
    3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
    a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100%
    branch coverage.
    b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100%
    statement coverage.
    c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more
    faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
    d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect
    more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.
    4 Which of the following requirements is testable?
    a) The system shall be user friendly.
    b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
    c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
    d) The system shall be built to be portable.
    5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
    Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
    IF the customer wants ‘return’
    Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
    IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
    Say: “That will be £11:20”
    ELSE
    Say: “That will be £19:50”
    ENDIF
    ELSE
    Say: “That will be £9:75”
    ENDIF
    Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
    the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
    replies given.
    a) 3
    b) 4
    c) 5d) 6
    6 Error guessing:
    a) supplements formal test design techniques.
    b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
    c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
    d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
    7 Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
    a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test
    suite.
    b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements
    covered.
    c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
    d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
    8 In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
    a) find as many faults as possible.
    b) test high risk areas.
    c) obtain good test coverage.
    d) test whatever is easiest to test.
    9 Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity
    descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
    v – test control
    w – test monitoring
    x – test estimation
    y – incident management
    z – configuration control
    1 – calculation of required test resources
    2 – maintenance of record of test results
    3 – re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
    4 – report on deviation from test plan
    5 – tracking of anomalous test results
    a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
    b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
    c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
    d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
    10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
    a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
    b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
    c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
    d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
    11 Which of the following is false?
    a) Incidents should always be fixed.
    b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
    c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
    d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
    12 Enough testing has been performed when:
    a) time runs out.
    b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
    c) no more faults are found.
    d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
    13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
    a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
    b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
    c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
    d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
    14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
    a) syntax testing
    b) equivalence partitioning
    c) stress testing
    d) modified condition/decision coverage
    15 Which of the following is false?
    a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
    b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
    c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
    d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
    16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT
    correct?
    a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
    b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
    c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
    d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
    17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
    a) Metrics from previous similar projects
    b) Discussions with the development team
    c) Time allocated for regression testing
    d) a & b
    18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
    a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
    b) It only models the testing phase.
    c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
    d) It includes the verification of designs.
    19 The oracle assumption:
    a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
    b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
    c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
    d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
    20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
    a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most
    expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
    b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix
    then.
    c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most
    expensive to fix then.
    d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases,
    they are cheapest to fix then.
    21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
    a) To find faults in the software.
    b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
    c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
    d) To prove that the software is correct.
    22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
    a) Boundary value analysis
    b) Usability testing
    c) Performance testing
    d) Security testing
    23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
    a) Features to be tested
    b) Incident reports
    c) Risks
    d) Schedule
    24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use
    of CAST?
    a) Test management
    b) Test design
    c) Test execution
    d) Test planning
    25 Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
    a) Statement testing
    b) Path testing
    c) Data flow testing
    d) State transition testing
    26 Data flow analysis studies:
    a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
    b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
    c) the use of data on paths through the code.
    d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
    27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
    An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
    The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
    Any further amount is taxed at 40%
    To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test
    case?
    a) £1500
    b) £32001
    c) £33501
    d) £28000
    28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
    a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
    b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
    c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
    d) are cheap to perform.
    29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User
    Acceptance Test scripts?
    a) Actual results
    b) Program specification
    c) User requirements
    d) System specification
    30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
    a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained
    moderator.
    b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
    c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
    d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained
    moderator.
    31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in
    the life cycle?
    a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
    b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
    c) It reduces defect multiplication.
    d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
    32 Integration testing in the small:
    a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
    b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
    c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
    d) tests interfaces to other systems.
    33 Static analysis is best described as:
    a) the analysis of batch programs.
    b) the reviewing of test plans.
    c) the analysis of program code.
    d) the use of black box testing.
    34 Alpha testing is:
    a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
    b) the first testing that is performed.
    c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
    d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
    35 A failure is:
    a) found in the software; the result of an error.
    b) departure from specified behaviour.
    c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
    d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
    36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
    An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
    The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
    Any further amount is taxed at 40%
    Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
    a) £4800; £14000; £28000
    b) £5200; £5500; £28000
    c) £28001; £32000; £35000
    d) £5800; £28000; £32000
    37 The most important thing about early test design is that it:
    a) makes test preparation easier.
    b) means inspections are not required.
    c) can prevent fault multiplication.
    d) will find all faults.
    38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
    a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
    b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
    c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
    d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
    39 Test cases are designed during:
    a) test recording.
    b) test planning.
    c) test configuration.
    d) test specification.
    40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
    a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
    b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
    c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
    d) restricted access to the source code library.
    Answers.
    1 A 11 A 20 A 31 C
    2 A 12 B 21 D 32 B
    3 D 13 A 22 A 33 C
    4 C 14 C 23 B 34 C
    5 A 15 B 24 C 35 B
    6 A 16 B 25 D 36 D
    7 C 17 D 26 C 37 C
    8 B 18 D 27 C 38 D
    9 C 19 B 28 A 39 D
    10 D 20 A 29 C 40 B

    Reply
  71. I have some ISTQB questions but don’t have correct answer. Could you please help me give the correct answer. Thanks

    1.
    A. Validation is for implemeting the correct thing
    B. Verification is for implementing the thing correct

    a/ A is True and B is TRue
    b/ A is True and B is False
    c/ A is False and B is False
    d/ A is False and B is True

    2. In a software application, there was implementation done based on the 4 age groups as 0 – 10, 11-25, 26-50, and 50+. Which testing technique you will apply to find out possible issues in the application without running it
    a/ Classification tree
    b/ Equivalence Partitioning System
    c/ Boundary Value Analysis
    d/ Error Guessing

    3. Error handling in code is mainly done as there are erros in the code
    a/ True
    b/ False

    4. Which type of testing requires Stubs and drivers? Select one anwser that applies correctly
    a/ Integration Testing
    b/ Component Testing
    c/ Bottom Up Testing
    d/ Top Down Testing

    5. Test cases can be designed in the exploratory testing
    a/ True
    b/ False

    6. Which of the following is not an input to the deisgn phase? Select one answer that applies correctly
    a/ A functional Specification
    b/ BRD
    c/ Program Specifications
    d/ Technical Architecture document

    7. ____ identifies many possible reasons for an issues or an error. It gives quick ideas for useful categories. Select one answer that applies correctly
    a/ Fish-Bone diagram
    b/ Histogram
    c/ Pareto analysis
    d/ Decision table

    8. Error added by programmer intentionally in the code is called as _________
    a/ Error seeding
    b/ Error handling
    c/ Error planting
    d/ Error guessing

    9. The testing performed on data for performing the basic operation on it is called as ____
    a/ CRUD Testing
    b/ Data Driven Testing
    c/ Data Validation techniques
    d/ Data Mining

    10. To ensure the quality of software is a process that can only be made by using it. Therefore, reading the code cannot be useful in any way
    a/ True
    b/ False

    11. Functions and procedures used for each unit needs to be documented in ____
    a/ Unit Test Plan
    b/ Program Specifications
    c/ Functional Specifications
    d/ Design Specifications

    12/ The functionalities to be covered or not is specified in one of the following
    a/ Test Plan
    b/ Test Strategy
    c/ Test Reporting
    d/ Test Approach

    13. Error Handling, Exception Handling & Memory leakage can be determined by
    a/ Program Review
    b/ Code Review
    c/ Test Case Review
    d/ None of the above

    14. The technique used for finding the few origins of majors issues withing the aplication is known as:
    a/ Histogram
    b/ Fishbone diagram
    c/ Pareto Technique
    d/ Classification Tree Technique

    15. _____determines if a new software version is perfroming well enough to accept for a major testing effert
    a/ Black Box Testing
    n/ Sanity Testing
    c/ Regression Testing
    d/ Stress Testing
    e/ Load Testing

    16. FP and lines of code are measure of ______
    a/ Effort
    b/ Schedule
    c/ Size
    d/ All of the above

    17. Behavior driven testing focuses on the _________
    a/ Requirements
    b/ Specifications
    c/ Test Plan
    d/ Agile Methodology

    18. Having Risk management in a project helps in
    i. Mitigating the risks associated with the project
    ii. Managing project without surprises
    iii. Identifying potential problems
    iv. Project Plan contingency

    a/ i, iii, iv
    b/ ii, iii, iv
    c/ i, ii, iii
    d/ i, ii, iii, iv

    19. Testing interfaces between unit, modules and sub-systems when the system is incrementally put together is known as _____
    a/ Destructive Testing
    b/ Integrated Testing
    c/ Integration Testing
    d/ User Interface Testing

    20. The Cyclomatic Complexity helps to understand ______
    i. Code Complexity
    ii. Testing Complexity
    iii. Efforst & Cost
    iv. Planning Test Execution

    a/ i, ii, iii, iv
    b/ i, iii, iv
    c/ i, ii
    d/ i, ii, iii
    e/ only ii

    Reply
  72. Thanks Sandhya and whoever working behind this.Could you please tell me as to where we can get the similar kind of questions.

    Reply
  73. Hi Sandhya
    That was really a good examples for starters…
    If possible do explain with some examples on Conditional Branching/looping etc….
    Also, Pl update anything available on Advance Levels
    Thanks

    Reply
  74. HI,

    this is very useful to us.i am preparing istqb foundation exam.can u give me full details.

    thanks and regards,

    kumar.

    Reply
  75. Thank you for your helpful article: I believe that question contains an error; the question uses numbers for options i, ii, iii, iv and your answers for the options use letters a, b, c, d.

    a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
    b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
    c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a(i): The quality of the product can be checked only after building it.
    Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
    b) Option b(ii): Verification checks that we have built the right product.
    c) Option c(iii): it does not help in developing the product
    d) Option d(iv): it does not involve monitory activities.

    So, the answer is ‘B’(option ii in your evaluation) which relates to option D in the Options in the question.
    I believe the correct answer should be ‘D’.

    Reply
  76. Good article…. Very Informative for Those preparing for ISTQB But I think ans to ques no 7 should be “D” rather than “B”

    Reply
  77. Sandhya& all,

    I have 8+ years of experience on testing domain like (HW and SW ). I came to know ISTQB certification good…any one can suggest me is it worth to apply this certificate, why because i have 8+ years of experience..

    May E-mail Id : ravi_gani2yahoo.co.in

    Thanks
    Ravi

    Reply
  78. Hi Ritu/Gaurav : Regarding your questions on decision coverage and branch coverage:

    1. To ensure the 100% Decision/Brach coverage you need to find minimum number of paths u need to traverse so that all the “Edges” (edge connects the two nodes) will be covered (Note all paths should introduce new edge)

    2. To ensure the 100% Statement coverage you need to list out minimum number of paths u need to traverse so that all the “Nodes” will be covered.

    Reply
  79. Hi Sandhya,
    This is Rohit Mann.Very nice information & Excellent work.. It really helps for tester to improve the knowledge and their work.I will also send some questions importent for the Interview to help the freshers.

    Reply
  80. Hi Sandhya,

    Very good explanation. Could you please suggest me the book i need to follow for clearing the ISTQB fundation level exam, online link for mock tests,material. ISTQB latest dumps.

    Please mail to swathi.18886@gmail.com

    Thanks in advance.

    Reply
  81. THE EXPLANATION IS WRONG WITH CORRECT ANSWER
    we need to differentiate between validation and verification. verification is done when something is done/built, the product in this case. Validation is if correct system is going to be produced/built.

    7. Verification involves which of the following:-
    i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
    ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
    iii. Helps in developing the product
    iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

    ————
    a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
    b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
    c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a: The quality of the product can be checked only after building it.
    Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
    b) Option b: Verification checks that we have built the right product.
    c) Option c: it does not help in developing the product
    d) Option d: it does not involve monitory activities.

    So, the answer is ‘B’

    Reply
    • Answer is D, if you look at the explanation it says “Verification checks that we have built the right product.” and that option is ii.
      If ii is true then that option is in D, not in B.

      Reply
  82. Hi,
    Currently am working as Manual test engineer.. Can you please tell me which Career is better in future- Manual Testing or Automation Testing…?
    If we are switching to automation testing, is it worth appearing for ISTQB exam?

    Reply
  83. Hi Sandya,

    I am planning to take up ISTQB -Advanced level exam.Can you please help me with the study material like if any online materials are available.Which books to refer and some sample papers.

    Thanks a lot in advance

    Reply
  84. i didn’t understand the 10th question.
    i didn’t understand the explanation of 10th answer..how to choose that.am bit confused in choosing that option.
    can you explain me in detain please…if you don’t mind

    Reply
  85. hy,
    pls help
    for Q7 I think the correct answer is not “D” because verification is related to specification and validation is the one related with requirements. So validation show us if “the right thing is done” and verification if the “the thing is done right”.
    validation helps us to check that we have built the right product not verification.
    Am I wrong?

    Reply
  86. Could anyone please send me the latest ISEM/ISTQB Foundation exam questions as i am desperate and about to take the exams. I don’t want to fail it this time, i have already failed it 1st time..
    My email address is dickieponga@yahoo.co.uk
    Please help.

    Reply
  87. none of the questions appeared from ISTQB dump in foundation level exam….many did not clear….pls share new ISTQB dumps if anybody has to Geetha56@gmail.com…I got 55%,very sad i did not clear…
    I think pattern is changed for ISTQB foundation..pls share new questions if anybody has cleared exam in october 2012.

    Reply
  88. Hi,will you please clarify below question
    Test mangers should not:
    A.Report on deviations from the project plan
    B. Sign the system off for release
    C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
    D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
    E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

    Reply
  89. Hello All, here im sending some ISTQB Q & A

    1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected
    behavior, this is called:
    a) an error
    b) a fault
    c) a failure
    d) a defect
    e) a mistake
    2 Regression testing should be performed:
    v) every week
    w) after the software has changed
    x) as often as possible
    y) when the environment has changed
    z) when the project manager says
    a) v & w are true, x – z are false
    b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
    c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
    d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
    e) all of the above are true
    3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
    a) test items
    b) test deliverables
    c) test tasks
    d) test environment
    e) test specification
    4 Testing should be stopped when:
    a) all the planned tests have been run
    b) time has run out
    c) all faults have been fixed correctly
    d) both a) and c)
    e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
    5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999
    inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for
    only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
    a) 1000, 5000, 99999
    b) 9999, 50000, 100000
    c) 10000, 50000, 99999
    d) 10000, 99999
    e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
    6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
    i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
    ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
    iii. early test design can find faults
    iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
    v. early test design takes more effort
    a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
    b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
    c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
    d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
    e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
    7 Non-functional system testing includes:
    a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
    b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
    c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
    d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
    e) testing for functions that should not exist
    8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
    a) status accounting of configuration items
    b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
    c) identification of test versions
    d) record of changes to documentation over time
    e) controlled library access
    9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for
    integration testing in the small?
    a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
    b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
    c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
    d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
    e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
    10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
    a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
    b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
    c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
    d) to know when test planning is complete
    e) to plan when to stop testing
    11 Consider the following statements
    i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
    ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
    iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
    iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
    v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software
    performs the test
    a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
    b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
    c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
    d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
    e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
    12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test
    cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
    Read P
    Read Q
    IF P+Q > 100 THEN
    Print “Large”
    ENDIF
    If P > 50 THEN
    Print “P Large”
    ENDIF
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    13 Given the following:
    Switch PC on
    Start “outlook”
    IF outlook appears THEN
    Send an email
    Close outlook
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    14 Given the following code, which is true:
    IF A > B THEN
    C = A – B
    ELSE
    C = A + B
    ENDIF
    Read D
    IF C = D Then
    Print “Error”
    ENDIF
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    15 Consider the following:
    Pick up and read the newspaper
    Look at what is on television
    If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the
    television on and watch the program
    Otherwise
    Continue reading the newspaper
    If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
    a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
    b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
    c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
    d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
    e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
    16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
    a) Attend a tool exhibition
    b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
    c) Analyse your needs and requirements
    d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
    e) Search the internet
    17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
    a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
    b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
    c) The independent testing team
    d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
    e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
    18 What can static analysis NOT find?
    a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
    b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
    c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
    d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
    e) Array bound violations
    19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
    a) Equivalence partitioning
    b) State transition testing
    c) LCSAJ
    d) Syntax testing
    e) Boundary value analysis
    20 Beta testing is:
    a) Performed by customers at their own site
    b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
    c) Performed by an independent test team
    d) Useful to test bespoke software
    e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
    21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by
    developers and which by an independent test team:
    i. static analysis
    ii. performance testing
    iii. test management
    iv. dynamic analysis
    v. test running
    vi. test data preparation
    a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
    b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
    c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
    d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
    e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi
    22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
    a) finding faults in the system
    b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
    c) testing the system with other systems
    d) testing for a business perspective
    e) testing by an independent test team
    23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is
    false:
    a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
    b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
    c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
    d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
    e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
    24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:
    a) inspection is the most formal review process
    b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
    c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
    d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
    e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents
    25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
    following EXCEPT:
    a) generating expected outputs
    b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
    c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
    d) recording test inputs
    e) reading test values from a data file
    26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
    a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side
    effects
    b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating
    those tests
    c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
    d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same
    environment
    e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent
    testers
    27 Expected results are:
    a) only important in system testing
    b) only used in component testing
    c) never specified in advance
    d) most useful when specified in advance
    e) derived from the code
    28 Test managers should not:
    a) report on deviations from the project plan
    b) sign the system off for release
    c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
    d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
    e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
    29 Unreachable code would best be found using:
    a) code reviews
    b) code inspections
    c) a coverage tool
    d) a test management tool
    e) a static analysis tool
    30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is
    called:
    a) a dynamic analysis tool
    b) a test execution tool
    c) a debugging tool
    d) a test management tool
    e) a configuration management tool
    31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:
    a) how to fix the fault
    b) how to reproduce the fault
    c) test environment details
    d) severity, priority
    e) the actual and expected outcomes
    32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review
    processes:
    1. led by author
    2. undocumented
    3. no management participation
    4. led by a trained moderator or leader
    5. uses entry exit criteria
    s) inspection
    t) peer review
    u) informal review
    v) walkthrough
    a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
    b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
    c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
    d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
    e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
    33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
    a) business process-based testing
    b) performance, load and stress testing
    c) requirements-based testing
    d) usability testing
    e) top-down integration testing
    34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
    a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
    b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
    c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and
    databases
    d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
    e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
    35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
    a) ISO/IEC 12207
    b) BS7925-1
    c) BS7925-2
    d) ANSI/IEEE 829
    e) ANSI/IEEE 729
    36 The cost of fixing a fault:
    a) Is not important
    b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
    c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
    d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
    e) Can never be determined
    37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
    Documentation Standard:
    a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
    b) What is not to be tested
    c) Test environments
    d) Quality plans
    e) Schedules and deadlines
    38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
    a) No, because they apply to development documentation
    b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
    c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
    d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
    e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
    39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
    a) Measuring response time
    b) Measuring transaction rates
    c) Recovery testing
    d) Simulating many users
    e) Generating many transactions
    40 Error guessing is best used
    a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
    b) After more formal techniques have been applied
    c) By inexperienced testers
    d) After the system has gone live
    e) Only by end users

    ANSWERS
    1 C 11B 21B 31A
    2 C 12B 22D 32B
    3 E 13B 23A 33E
    4 E 14B 24D 34A
    5 C 15E 25A 35B
    6 A 16C 26A 36B
    7 B 17B 27D 37D
    8 B 18C 28C 38D
    9 C 19C 29A 39C
    10 E 20A 30E 40B

    Reply
  90. Hi Sandhya, Very nice article. Really helpful..Could you please explain few questions on decision coverage ,branch coverage & Cyclomatic complexity

    Reply
  91. Hi Sandhya,

    Can you answer this question and my mailid mohanvbs@gmail.com

    Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
    i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
    ii. Code b Acceptance tests
    iii. Low-level design c System tests
    iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
    A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
    B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
    C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
    D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

    Reply
  92. Could you please explain the following questions on decision coverage and branch coverage

    2 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test
    cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
    Read P
    Read Q
    IF P+Q > 100 THEN
    Print “Large”
    ENDIF
    If P > 50 THEN
    Print “P Large”
    ENDIF
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    3 Given the following:
    Switch PC on
    Start “outlook”
    IF outlook appears THEN
    Send an email
    Close outlook
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    Reply
  93. Hiii Sandhya,
    Thanks very much for providing such a valuable information….i goin to prepare for This exam i.e Foundation ISQTB..
    Can u plz suggest me good books & guidelines in this concern?
    Thanks again..

    Reply
  94. thanks a lot vijay and sandhya
    From this explanation i can get a clear idea on how to eliminate the invalid answers and come up with a single answer.
    waiting for more material on all testing certifications

    Reply
  95. hi sandhya,
    i am preparing for foundation level which is on 25th of this month.while preparing few sample papers, i could find different answers for few questions. so, i am confused. i am not good in sloving branch coverage and statement coverage question.
    here r few questions i am posting. can u give describtion how to slove the question.
    Q12. Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
    Read P
    Read Q
    IF P+Q > 100
    THENPrint “Large”
    ENDIFIf P > 50
    THENPrint “P Large”
    ENDIF

    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q13. Given the following:
    Switch PC on
    Start “outlook”
    IF outlook appears
    THEN
    Send an email
    Close outlook
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    Q14. Given the following code, which is true:
    IF A > B
    THEN
    C = A – B
    ELSE
    C = A + B
    ENDIF
    Read D
    IF C = D
    Then
    Print “Error”
    ENDIF
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q15. Consider the following:
    Pick up and read the newspaper
    Look at what is on television
    If there is a program that you are interested in watching
    Then
    switch the the television on and watch the program
    Otherwise
    Continue reading the newspaper
    If there is a crossword in the newspaper
    Then
    try and complete the crossword
    a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
    b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
    c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
    d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
    e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

    21. ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)

    A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99
    and the last q, i am confused which is answer. i think ‘a’ is correct. but in sample papers ‘e’ is given as correct.

    can u plz help me out with these.
    thanks
    Q31. What information need not be included in a test incident report:
    a) how to fix the fault
    b) how to reproduce the fault
    c) test environment details
    d) severity, priority
    e) the actual and expected outcomes

    Reply
  96. I want to get the ISTQB Advance Functional Tester materials and tips, please let me know the materials and sample papers

    Reply
  97. Thanks Sandhya for the valuable info.

    Can you please explore the exam pattern for ISTQB advance level?

    Do you have any suggestions for advance level exam preparation?

    Reply
  98. can any one answer this question with explanation (by referring V Model)

    Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
    i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
    ii. Code b Acceptance tests
    iii. Low-level design c System tests
    iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
    A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
    B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
    C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
    D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

    Reply
  99. Hi All,
    Is there any braindump kind of thing, reading which i can clear the ISTQB foundation level certainly(like microsoft certification braindumps)? If anyone have please send it to my id surfing_bgp@hotmail.com

    Thnaks
    Saurabh

    Reply
  100. Hi Sandhya
    Excellent posts and very useful too.
    Can I have some input for ISTQB advanced level. I have cleared ISTQB foundation. It would be great If you could post something on ISTQB advanced level preparation.

    Regards
    kishore sharma

    Reply
  101. wonderful points altogether, you simply received a new reader. What might you recommend about your post that you simply made some days in the past? Any sure?

    Reply
  102. How to find number of test cases for branch and statement coverage. I am very confused about it, please some let me know asap. I am appearing for ISTQB EXAM to to be held on dec 17th.

    Reply
  103. According to the ISTQB Glossary a risk relates to which of the following?
    a) Negative feedback to the tester.
    b) Negative consequences that will occur.
    c) Negative consequences that could occur.
    d) Negative consequences for the test object.

    Ensuring that a test design start during the requirements definition phase isimportant to enable which of the following test objectives?
    a) Preventing defects in the system.
    b) Finding defects through dynamic testing.
    c) Gaining confidence in the system.
    d) Finishing the project on time.
    COTS is known as:
    a. Commercial off the shelf software
    b. Compliance of the software
    c. Change control of the software
    d. Capable off the shelf software

    Which is not the testing objective?
    a. Finding defects
    b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
    c. Preventing defects.
    d. Debugging defects
    Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good
    relationships between developers and testers?
    a) Understanding what Managers value about testing.
    b) Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
    c) Identifying potential customer work-around for bugs.
    d) Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
    According to ISTQB Glossary, the word ‘Error’ is synonymous with which of
    the following?
    a) Failure
    b) Defect
    c) Mistake
    d) Bug
    Which of the following encourages objective testing?
    a) Unit Testing.
    b) System Testing.
    c) Independent Testing.
    d) Destructive Testing.
    Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial software
    in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated?
    a) Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated.
    b) Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.
    c) Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest
    calculation rules.
    d) Incorrect calculators were used to calculate the expected results.

    Consider the following statements:
    1i. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
    2ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation.
    3iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
    4iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments.
    a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
    b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
    c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
    d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of software?
    a) Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classic sense
    b) Software doesn’t “wear out” with the time
    9
    c) The traditional industry is moving toward component based assembly, whereas most
    software continues to be custom built and the concept of component based assembly is
    still taking shape
    d) Software does not require maintenance
    A reliable system will be one that:
    a) is unlikely to be completed on schedule
    b) is unlikely to cause a failure
    c) is likely to be fault free
    d) is likely to be liked by the users
    A manifestation of an ‘error’ in software is
    a) An Error
    b) A Fault
    c) A Failure
    d) An Action
    Select a reason that does not agree with the fact that complete testing is
    impossible:
    a) The domain of possible inputs is too large to test.
    b) Limited financial resources.
    c) There are too many possible paths through the program to test.
    d) The user interface issues (and thus the design issues) are too complex to completely
    test.
    “Which life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This
    statement is best suited for
    a) Water fall model
    b) Spiral model
    c) Incremental model
    d) V-Model
    Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
    a)component testing
    b)non-functional system testing
    c)user acceptance testing
    d)maintenance testing

    Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing
    Life cycle:
    i. Global design
    ii. System Requirements
    iii. Detailed design
    iv. User Requirements
    a) Unit tests
    b) Acceptance tests
    c) System tests
    d) Integration tests
    a) i -d , ii-a , iii-b , iv-c
    b) i -c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
    c) i -d , ii-c , iii-a , iv-b
    d) i -c , ii-d , iii-b , iv-a
    Which of the following statements is NOT true?
    a) inspection is the most formal review process
    b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
    c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
    d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
    Which of the following is a static test?
    a. code inspection
    b. coverage analysis
    c. usability assessment
    d. installation test

    Which of the following is not a static testing technique?
    a. Error guessing
    b. Walkthrough
    c. Data flow analysis
    d. Inspections
    Inspections can find all the following except
    a. Variables not defined in the code
    b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
    c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
    d. How much of the code has been covered
    Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which
    are false?
    1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix
    2. Early test design can find defects
    3. Early test design can cause to the changes to the requirements
    4. Early test design can takes more effort
    a) 1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false.
    b) 2 is true. 1, 3 and 4 are false.
    c) 2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false.
    d) 2, 3, and 4 are true. 1 is false
    Static code analysis typically identifies all but one of the following problems.
    Which is it?
    a) Unreachable code
    b) Faults in requirements
    c) Undeclared variables
    d) Too few comments
    What is the more important factor for successful performance of review?
    a) A separate scribe during the logging meeting
    b) Trained participants and review leaders
    c) The availability of tools to support the review process
    d) A reviewed test plan
    Code Walkthrough is
    a. type of dynamic testing
    b. type of static testing
    c. neither dynamic nor static
    d. performed by the testing team
    Why static testing described as complementary for dynamic testing?
    a) Because they share the aim of identifying defects and finds the same types of defect.
    b) Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
    c) Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
    d) Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they
    find.
    Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false?
    a) Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
    b) Static testing includes desk checking
    c) Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
    d) Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
    A test design technique is
    a. a process for selecting test cases
    b. a process for determining expected outputs
    c. a way to measure the quality of software
    d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
    When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores
    from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis
    is known as:
    a) Equivalence partitioning
    b) Boundary value analysis
    c) Decision table
    d) Hybrid analysis

    Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can
    be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface
    parameters in integration testing.
    a) Error Guessing
    b) Boundary Value Analysis
    c) Decision Table testing
    d) Equivalence partitioning
    Assume postal rates for ‘light letters’ are:
    $0.25 up to 10 grams
    $0.35 up to 50 grams
    $0.45 up to 75 grams
    $0.55 up to 100 grams
    Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?
    a) 0, 9, 19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99, 100
    b) 10, 50, 75, 100, 250, 1000
    c) 0, 1, 10, 11, 50, 51, 75, 76, 100, 101
    d) 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56

    What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
    a) Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed
    b) Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be
    solved by the software or its components
    c) Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester
    d) Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system
    or components

    What is the relationship between equivalence partitioning and boundary
    value analysis techniques?
    a) Structural testing
    b) Opaque testing
    c) Compatibility testing
    d) All of the above
    Suggest an alternative for requirement traceability matrix
    a) Test Coverage matrix
    b) Average defect aging
    c) Test Effectiveness
    d) Error discovery rate

    Branch Coverage
    a) another name for decision coverage
    b) another name for all-edges coverage
    c) another name for basic path coverage
    d) all the above

    Path coverage includes
    a) statement coverage
    b) condition coverage
    c) decision coverage
    d) none of these
    Error seeding
    a) Evaluates the thoroughness with which a computer program is tested by purposely
    inserting errors into a supposedly correct program.
    b) Errors inserted by the developers intentionally to make the system
    malfunctioning.
    c) for identifying existing errors
    d) Both a and b
    Which of the following best describes the difference between clear
    box and opaque box?
    1. Clear box is structural testing, opaque box is Ad-hoc testing
    2. Clear box is done by tester, and opaque box is done by developer
    3. Opaque box is functional testing, clear box is exploratory testing
    a) 1
    b) 1 and 3
    c) 2
    d) 3
    What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having
    the effects of that change show up in some test?
    a) Desk checking
    b) Debugging a program
    c) A mutation error
    d) Introducing mutation
    How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of
    statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two
    conditions are independent of each other : – …………
    if (Condition 1)
    then statement 1
    else statement 2
    fi
    if (Condition 2)
    then statement 3
    fi
    …………
    a. 1 test case
    b. 3 Test Cases
    c. 4 Test Cases
    d. Not achievable

    If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass
    (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class?
    A. 23, 24, 25
    B. 0, 12, 25
    C. 30, 36, 39
    D. 32, 37, 40
    Consider the following statements:
    i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
    ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
    iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
    iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
    v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
    a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
    b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
    c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
    d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
    Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
    a) Expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behavior
    b) Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
    c) Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
    d) Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
    The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software
    product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
    a) Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
    b) Software delivery is behind schedule
    c) Threat to a patient’s life
    d) 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated
    A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect
    registered and enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to
    test the status tracking, which method would be best?
    a) Logic-based testing
    b) Use-case-based testing
    c) State transition testing
    d) Systematic testing according to the V-model
    Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
    a) Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the
    testware and the test object
    b) Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change
    control board
    c) Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
    d) Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

    What test items should be put under configuration management?
    a) The test object, the test material and the test environment
    b) The problem reports and the test material
    c) Only the test objects. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
    d) The test object and the test material

    Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
    (I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
    (II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
    (III) The specification was unclear
    (IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
    (V) The testers were not certified
    a) (I) and (II) are correct
    b) (I) through (IV) are correct
    c) (III) through (V) are correct
    d) (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

    Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
    a) For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one
    used British units
    b) The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
    c) The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding
    the input error cause
    d) Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

    Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
    (I) contractual requirements
    (II) Legal requirements
    (III) Industry standards
    (IV) Application risk
    (V) Project size
    a) (I) through (III) are correct
    b) All alternatives are correct
    c) (II) and (V) are correct
    d) (I), (III) and (V) are correct
    Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?
    a) The version number of the test object
    b) Test data and used environment
    c) Identification of the test case that failed
    d) The location and instructions on how to correct the fault
    Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
    a) As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide
    what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.
    b) Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
    c) A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule
    the test-cycles
    d) Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme
    cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place
    In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
    i. Determine the test technique to be employed
    ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
    iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
    iv. Determine the cost of the project
    a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
    b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
    d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false
    Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
    i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool
    on the project.
    ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
    iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
    iv. Create the Test Specifications
    a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
    b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
    c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
    d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

    Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
    a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
    b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
    c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
    d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
    Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
    a) Determining the test approach.
    b) Preparing test specifications.
    c) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
    d) Measuring and analyzing results.

    What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
    a) To communicate how incidents will be managed.
    b) To communicate how testing will be performed.
    c) To produce a test schedule.
    d) To produce a work breakdown structure.
    In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the
    test design work to be begun?
    a) After the software or system has been produced.
    b) During development.
    c) As early as possible.
    d) During requirements analysis.

    What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
    a) To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
    b) To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
    c) To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
    d) To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.

    Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
    a) An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote
    the software.
    b) An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works
    than the person who wrote the software.
    c) An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less
    familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
    d) An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the
    person who wrote the software.

    For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns
    of Configuration Management?
    i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
    ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
    iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
    iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
    v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
    vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
    a) i, iv, vi.
    b) ii, iii, v.
    c) i, iii, iv.
    d) iv, v, vi.

    Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
    a) An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote
    the software.
    b) An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works
    than the person who wrote the software.
    c) An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less
    familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
    d) An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the
    person who wrote the software.

    For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns
    of Configuration Management?
    i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
    ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
    iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
    iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
    v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
    vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
    a) i, iv, vi.
    b) ii, iii, v.
    c) i, iii, iv.
    d) iv, v, vi.

    A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
    following EXCEPT:
    a) generating expected outputs
    b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
    c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
    d) recording test inputs
    e) reading test values from a data file

    The software engineer’s role in tool selection is
    a) To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
    b) To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
    c) To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
    d) To identify, evaluate and select the tools

    Which tool store information about versions and builds of software and
    testware?
    a. Test Management tool
    b. Requirements management tool
    c. Configuration management tool
    d. Static analysis tool
    Static analysis tools are typically used by
    a. Testers
    b. Developers
    c. Business analysts
    d. Customers
    Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of
    a testing tool?
    a) Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
    b) Complete the testing of a key project.
    c) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
    d) Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
    10) Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
    a) Dynamic Analysis tool.
    b) Test Execution tool.
    c) Static Analysis tool.
    d) Security tool.

    Which tools help to support static testing?
    a) Static analysis tools and test execution tools
    b) Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools
    c) Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools
    d) Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools
    14) Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework
    tools?
    a) Test management and control
    b) Test specification and design
    c) Test execution and logging
    d) Performance and monitoring
    15) Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution
    tools?
    a) Data-driven and keyword-driven
    b) Data-driven and capture-driven
    c) Capture driven and keyhole-driven
    d) playback-driven and keyword-driven
    16) What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
    a) Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much
    b) Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution
    tool has been purchased
    c) The tool may find defects that aren’t there.
    d) The till will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous thing
    17) Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?
    a) Test management and control
    b) Test specification and design
    c) Test execution and logging
    d) Performance and monitoring
    18) Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to
    support testing?
    1 over reliance on the tools
    2 greater consistency and repeatability
    3 objective assessment
    4 unrealistic expectations
    5 underestimating the effort require maintaining the test assets generated by the tool
    6 ease of access to information about tests or testing
    7 repetitive work is reduced
    a) Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
    58
    b) Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7. Risks: 4, 5 and 6
    c) Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
    d) Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7
    19) Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool
    evaluation?
    a) Decide tool to acquire
    b) Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool
    c) Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects
    d) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the
    test assets
    20) Which success factors are required for good tool support within an
    organization?
    a) Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it
    b) Adopting process to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits
    c) Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving
    them.
    d) Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of
    using the tool are maintained.
    21) Which of the following factor is Not important in selecting a tool?
    a) Cost of the tool
    b) evaluation of tools against clear requirements and objective criteria
    c) Assessment of the organization’s maturity
    d) Identifying and planning internal implementation
    22) Which of the following are not strictly testing tools?
    a) Test execution tools
    b) Configuration management tools
    c) Unit test framework tools
    d) Incident management tools
    23) Coverage measurement tools are useful to
    a) Record tests and Automated test execution
    b) Test components or part of a system by simulating the environment
    c) Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure
    d) Check for computer viruses and denial of service attacks
    24) Determining differences between files, databases or test results are
    objectives of
    a) Security tools
    b) Test data preparation tools
    c) Test comparators
    d) Monitoring tools
    25) Which of the following types of tools haven’t special considerations?
    a) Static analysis tools
    b) Performance testing tools
    c) Test management tools
    d) Test design tools

    Reply
  104. HI,
    THANKS FOR THE GOOD QUESTIONSS.I M HAVING ONE QURY REGARDING QUESTION NO 10. I THINK THERE IS B & C BOTH ARE THE ANSWERS SHOUD BE CORRECT.?

    Reply
  105. Nice Article….

    Hi My Question is :

    If I Given one time ISTQB Foundation level exam then i fail to crack so when can i give that exam next? What is the Procedure to reapply ?

    i.e suppose i give exam in march 2016 and fail so i m applicable to give that exam in next conduct exam for example in April 2016.

    Pls kindly Guide me for that and give Reference also
    Thanks

    Reply
  106. Hi All,

    Anybody Know, When is the ISTQB Foundation exam?

    Whether it will conduct on once in every two months?

    How to apply for the ISTQB Foundation exam?

    Plz give some guideline for apply the exam.

    Thanks in Advance,

    Kamatchi Sundaram

    Reply
  107. Good information sandhya, I just have a query,

    Evaluation given for Question no:7 and its answers are contradictory, i guess ‘D’ is the right answer and not ‘B’. Please confirm.

    It says, Verification is a cycle before completing the product. But selected the option ‘B’ as right one.

    Reply
  108. Hi Sandhya,
    Very nice information & Excellent work.. It really helps me to prepare for foundation level certification. Please post further questions for us….

    Reply
  109. Hi, Can you please send me some questions which are given in written exams for a QA testing job? They said written technical test. Thankyou

    Reply
  110. Hi Sandhya,

    Ur explanation is very much helpful. I am also planning to appear ISTQB exam.
    Can you please suggest me the good book to follow for clearing the ISTQB fundation level exam, online link for mock tests,material & ISTQB latest dumps.
    I have heard the test pattern is going to change from this November. Can u Plz updated the pattern also..

    You can mail to lipsa.171@gmail.com.
    Thanks in advance.

    Reply
  111. Hi Sandhya,

    Thanks for u in supporting the ISTQB. Really its a great job.Can u please update the recent papers of ISTQB its 2009 ,10 and 11 if possible.Once again thanks for the support.

    Have a nice time

    Reply
  112. Pl answer the following question and explain

    Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?
    a. Operability
    b. Observability
    c. Simplicity
    d. Robustness

    13. Given the Following program
    IF X = Z
    THEN Statement 2;
    END
    McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5

    a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks
    to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction,
    what is equivalence class.
    A. 23, 24, 25
    B. 0, 12, 25
    C. 30, 36, 39
    D. 32,37,40

    31. Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
    A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
    B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
    C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with
    dynamic testing.
    D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.

    7) which of the following statements are true
    a) faults in the program specification are most expensive to fix
    b) faults in code are most expensive to fix
    c) faults in requirement are most expensive to fix
    d) faults in design are most expensive to fix

    Reply
  113. Hi sandhya
    Your tips are very good…
    but please provide me the link from where i can get more sample papers for ISTQB,kindly mail me on my email
    Thanks & Regards

    Anshul

    Reply
  114. hi sandya
    I am planning to take ISTQB.
    your way of explaining the eqivalance partitioning and boundry value analysis is really great…
    could I know how to calculate the cyclomatic complexity?

    Reply

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