ISTQB Question Pattern and Tips to Solve

In this article, our author Sandhya will be giving you ISTQB paper pattern and more tips on how to solve the questions quickly. To start with, here are 10 sample ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ questions with a detailed explanation for each answer.

ISTQB Question Pattern and Tips to Solve

ISTQB questions are formatted in such a way that the answers look much similar to one another. People often tend to choose the one, which they are more familiar with. However, it is always advisable to read the question carefully twice or thrice or even more than that, till we are clear about what is being asked.

Later, look at the options carefully. The options are chosen to confuse the candidates. To choose the correct answer, we should start eliminating one by one. Go through each option and check whether it is an appropriate one or not. If you end up selecting more than one option, repeat the above logic for the answers that you have selected. This will definitely work.

ISTQB Question Pattern

Before you start with the question papers, please read the material thoroughly. Practice as many papers as possible. This will help a lot because, when we actually solve the papers, we apply the logic that we know.

ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ Sample Questions with Answers

1. Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase?

a) Test Implementation and execution
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
d) Test Closure Activities

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: The name suggests these activities are a part of the actual implementation cycle. So it does not fall under set-up
b) Option b: Analysis and design activities come before implementation. The test environment set-up, identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of this activity.
c) Option c: These are post-implementation activities
d) Option d: These are related to closing activities. And this is the last activity.

So, here the answer is ‘B’

2. Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying whether the test environment has been set up correctly or not.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Evaluating the options:
Let’s follow a different approach in this case. As it can be seen from the above options, determining the exit criteria is definitely not a part of test implementation and execution. So choose the options where (iv) is false. This filters out ‘b’ and ‘d’.

We need to select only from ‘a’ and ‘c’ now. We only need to analyze the option (iii) as (i) and (ii) are marked as true in both the cases. Verification of the test environment is a part of the implementation activity. Hence option (iii) is true. This leaves the only option as ‘a’.

So, here the answer is ‘A’

3. A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following?

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

Evaluating the options:
Let’s use the approach implemented in the question no. 2 here. Test scripts are a not part of the test plan (this must be clear). So choose the options where (ii) is false. So we end up selecting ‘b’ and ‘d’. Now evaluate the option (i), as the option (iii) and (iv) are already given as true in both the cases. Test items are a part of the test plan. Test items are the modules or features which will be tested and these will be a part of the test plan as well.

So, here the answer is ‘B’

4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class.
a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21

Evaluating the options:
In this case, first, we should identify which are valid and invalid equivalence classes.

Invalid Class | Valid Class | Invalid Class
Below 18 | 18 to 25 | 26 and above

Option ‘a’ falls under invalid class. Options ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ fall under valid class.

So, here the answer is ‘A’

5. In an Examination, a candidate has to score a minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22

Evaluating the options:
Let’s use the approach given in question 4. Identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.

Invalid Class | Valid Class | Invalid Class
Below 24 | 24 to 40 | 41 and above

The question is to identify valid equivalence values. So all the values must be of ‘Valid class’ only.

a) Option a: all the values are not from valid class
b) Option b: all the values are not from valid class
c) Option c: all the values are from valid class
d) Option d: all the values are not from valid class

So, here the answer is ‘C’

6. Which of the following statement regarding Static Testing is false?

a) static testing requires running of tests through the code
b) static testing includes desk checking
c) static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Is wrong. Static testing has nothing to do with the code
b) Option b: It is correct, static testing does include desk checking
c) Option c: It is correct, it includes reviews and inspections
d) Option d: It is correct, it can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

So, here the answer is ‘A’

7. Which of the following does Verification involve?
i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check if we have built the right product or not.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: The quality of a product can be checked only after building it.
Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
b) Option b: Verification checks if we have built the right product or not.
c) Option c: It does not help in developing the product
d) Option d: It does not involve in any monitory activities.

So, here the answer is ‘B’

8. What is Component Testing also called?
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing.

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
d) all of above is true

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: It is correct, component testing is also called as unit testing
b) Option b: Not sure (but as all the options indicate this as true, we can conclude that Program testing is also called as unit testing)
c) Option c: It is correct, component testing is also called as module testing
d) Option d: This is wrong. System component testing comes under system testing.

So, here the answer is ‘A’

9. What is Link Testing is also called?
a) Component Integration testing
b) Component System Testing
c) Component Sub System Testing
d) Maintenance testing

Evaluating the options:
As the name suggests, this testing is performed by linking (say modules). Now if
we look at the options, only option ‘a’ is performed by linking or integrating
modules/components.

So, here the answer is ‘A’

10.
ISTQB questions 10

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65-year-old married person, residing in Colombo.
a) A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B–Issue membership, offer no discount. B
b) A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer a discount. C
c) A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
d) A – Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

Evaluating the options:

ISYQB answer 10
Explanation:
For TC1: follow the path in green colour
(The person is Indian resident, so select only ‘True’ options.
The person is aged between 18-55, so select only ‘True’
The person is a married, so again select only ‘True’
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule 4’ will be applied. That is, issue membership and no discount)

For TC3: follow the path in blue colour
(The person is not Indian resident, so select only ‘False’ (under Rule 1)
The person is not aged between 18-55. No need to select any path, as it is written: “Don’t care”.
The person is married. No need to select any path, as it is written: “Don’t care”.
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule1’ will be applied, That is, Don’t issue membership and no discount.)

So, here the answer is ‘C’

Note: The answers are based on writers own experience and judgment and may not be 100% correct. If you feel any correction is required please discuss in comments below.

About the Author: We are glad to welcome ‘Sandhya’ on softwaretestinghelp.com writer’s board. Sandhya has extensive experience in software testing field and helps many software testers in clearing the testing certification exams like ISTQB.

Please feel free to ask any question related to ISTQB exam and testing certifications in the comment section below.

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248 Comments on “ISTQB Question Pattern and Tips to Solve

  1. Hi….
    Thank you so much for the tip. I’l surely apply it.
    I am giving ISTQB -foundation exam on 27th Jan’ 13, so if you have latest Q. set, will you please send me on snehalmogal623@gmail.com
    Thank you.

  2. Hi Sandhya,

    Am going to give ISTQB exam this saturday..I have gon ethrought the book and the materials and few mock papers.

    Can anyone please provide me the latest papers of ISTQB Foundation level????

    Please help me out to clear the exam.
    Mail me at priyankakhandelwal96@gmail.com

  3. Hi Sandhya,

    I’m giving ISTQB Foundation Level Exam this year in 2013. Could you please help me in providing the new format questions with answers (and suggestions if any) from your side.

  4. For ISTQB Training and certification call:-09620639473

  5. Please give me the solution for below Questions ASAP. It is urgent.

    1) write a program which should accept and integer and print output as below

    eg. 1 *

    2 *
    ***
    *

    3 *
    ***
    *****
    ***
    *

    2) for the code below,analyse and list all possible test cases

    read p
    read q
    if p+q>100
    print “large”
    endif
    if p>50
    print “p large”
    endif

  6. Hi There,

    I need you help to get answer and solution to this kind of questions. Please explain answer and solution , please do give correct option only. You can mail me answer at given email address

    Q12. Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
    Read P
    Read Q
    IF P+Q > 100
    THENPrint “Large”
    ENDIFIf P > 50
    THENPrint “P Large”
    ENDIF

    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q13. Given the following:
    Switch PC on
    Start “outlook”
    IF outlook appears
    THEN
    Send an email
    Close outlook
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    Q14. Given the following code, which is true:
    IF A > B
    THEN
    C = A – B
    ELSE
    C = A + B
    ENDIF
    Read D
    IF C = D
    Then
    Print “Error”
    ENDIF
    a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q15. Consider the following:
    Pick up and read the newspaper
    Look at what is on television
    If there is a program that you are interested in watching
    Then
    switch the the television on and watch the program
    Otherwise
    Continue reading the newspaper
    If there is a crossword in the newspaper
    Then
    try and complete the crossword
    a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
    b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
    c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
    d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
    e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

  7. According to the ISTQB Glossary a risk relates to which of the following?
    a) Negative feedback to the tester.
    b) Negative consequences that will occur.
    c) Negative consequences that could occur.
    d) Negative consequences for the test object.

    Ensuring that a test design start during the requirements definition phase isimportant to enable which of the following test objectives?
    a) Preventing defects in the system.
    b) Finding defects through dynamic testing.
    c) Gaining confidence in the system.
    d) Finishing the project on time.
    COTS is known as:
    a. Commercial off the shelf software
    b. Compliance of the software
    c. Change control of the software
    d. Capable off the shelf software

    Which is not the testing objective?
    a. Finding defects
    b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
    c. Preventing defects.
    d. Debugging defects
    Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good
    relationships between developers and testers?
    a) Understanding what Managers value about testing.
    b) Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
    c) Identifying potential customer work-around for bugs.
    d) Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
    According to ISTQB Glossary, the word ‘Error’ is synonymous with which of
    the following?
    a) Failure
    b) Defect
    c) Mistake
    d) Bug
    Which of the following encourages objective testing?
    a) Unit Testing.
    b) System Testing.
    c) Independent Testing.
    d) Destructive Testing.
    Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial software
    in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated?
    a) Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated.
    b) Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.
    c) Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest
    calculation rules.
    d) Incorrect calculators were used to calculate the expected results.

    Consider the following statements:
    1i. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
    2ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation.
    3iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
    4iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments.
    a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
    b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
    c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
    d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of software?
    a) Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classic sense
    b) Software doesn’t “wear out” with the time
    9
    c) The traditional industry is moving toward component based assembly, whereas most
    software continues to be custom built and the concept of component based assembly is
    still taking shape
    d) Software does not require maintenance
    A reliable system will be one that:
    a) is unlikely to be completed on schedule
    b) is unlikely to cause a failure
    c) is likely to be fault free
    d) is likely to be liked by the users
    A manifestation of an ‘error’ in software is
    a) An Error
    b) A Fault
    c) A Failure
    d) An Action
    Select a reason that does not agree with the fact that complete testing is
    impossible:
    a) The domain of possible inputs is too large to test.
    b) Limited financial resources.
    c) There are too many possible paths through the program to test.
    d) The user interface issues (and thus the design issues) are too complex to completely
    test.
    “Which life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This
    statement is best suited for
    a) Water fall model
    b) Spiral model
    c) Incremental model
    d) V-Model
    Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
    a)component testing
    b)non-functional system testing
    c)user acceptance testing
    d)maintenance testing

    Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing
    Life cycle:
    i. Global design
    ii. System Requirements
    iii. Detailed design
    iv. User Requirements
    a) Unit tests
    b) Acceptance tests
    c) System tests
    d) Integration tests
    a) i -d , ii-a , iii-b , iv-c
    b) i -c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
    c) i -d , ii-c , iii-a , iv-b
    d) i -c , ii-d , iii-b , iv-a
    Which of the following statements is NOT true?
    a) inspection is the most formal review process
    b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
    c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
    d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
    Which of the following is a static test?
    a. code inspection
    b. coverage analysis
    c. usability assessment
    d. installation test

    Which of the following is not a static testing technique?
    a. Error guessing
    b. Walkthrough
    c. Data flow analysis
    d. Inspections
    Inspections can find all the following except
    a. Variables not defined in the code
    b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
    c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
    d. How much of the code has been covered
    Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which
    are false?
    1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix
    2. Early test design can find defects
    3. Early test design can cause to the changes to the requirements
    4. Early test design can takes more effort
    a) 1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false.
    b) 2 is true. 1, 3 and 4 are false.
    c) 2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false.
    d) 2, 3, and 4 are true. 1 is false
    Static code analysis typically identifies all but one of the following problems.
    Which is it?
    a) Unreachable code
    b) Faults in requirements
    c) Undeclared variables
    d) Too few comments
    What is the more important factor for successful performance of review?
    a) A separate scribe during the logging meeting
    b) Trained participants and review leaders
    c) The availability of tools to support the review process
    d) A reviewed test plan
    Code Walkthrough is
    a. type of dynamic testing
    b. type of static testing
    c. neither dynamic nor static
    d. performed by the testing team
    Why static testing described as complementary for dynamic testing?
    a) Because they share the aim of identifying defects and finds the same types of defect.
    b) Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
    c) Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
    d) Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they
    find.
    Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false?
    a) Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
    b) Static testing includes desk checking
    c) Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
    d) Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
    A test design technique is
    a. a process for selecting test cases
    b. a process for determining expected outputs
    c. a way to measure the quality of software
    d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
    When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores
    from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis
    is known as:
    a) Equivalence partitioning
    b) Boundary value analysis
    c) Decision table
    d) Hybrid analysis

    Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can
    be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface
    parameters in integration testing.
    a) Error Guessing
    b) Boundary Value Analysis
    c) Decision Table testing
    d) Equivalence partitioning
    Assume postal rates for ‘light letters’ are:
    $0.25 up to 10 grams
    $0.35 up to 50 grams
    $0.45 up to 75 grams
    $0.55 up to 100 grams
    Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?
    a) 0, 9, 19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99, 100
    b) 10, 50, 75, 100, 250, 1000
    c) 0, 1, 10, 11, 50, 51, 75, 76, 100, 101
    d) 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56

    What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
    a) Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed
    b) Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be
    solved by the software or its components
    c) Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester
    d) Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system
    or components

    What is the relationship between equivalence partitioning and boundary
    value analysis techniques?
    a) Structural testing
    b) Opaque testing
    c) Compatibility testing
    d) All of the above
    Suggest an alternative for requirement traceability matrix
    a) Test Coverage matrix
    b) Average defect aging
    c) Test Effectiveness
    d) Error discovery rate

    Branch Coverage
    a) another name for decision coverage
    b) another name for all-edges coverage
    c) another name for basic path coverage
    d) all the above

    Path coverage includes
    a) statement coverage
    b) condition coverage
    c) decision coverage
    d) none of these
    Error seeding
    a) Evaluates the thoroughness with which a computer program is tested by purposely
    inserting errors into a supposedly correct program.
    b) Errors inserted by the developers intentionally to make the system
    malfunctioning.
    c) for identifying existing errors
    d) Both a and b
    Which of the following best describes the difference between clear
    box and opaque box?
    1. Clear box is structural testing, opaque box is Ad-hoc testing
    2. Clear box is done by tester, and opaque box is done by developer
    3. Opaque box is functional testing, clear box is exploratory testing
    a) 1
    b) 1 and 3
    c) 2
    d) 3
    What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having
    the effects of that change show up in some test?
    a) Desk checking
    b) Debugging a program
    c) A mutation error
    d) Introducing mutation
    How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of
    statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two
    conditions are independent of each other : – …………
    if (Condition 1)
    then statement 1
    else statement 2
    fi
    if (Condition 2)
    then statement 3
    fi
    …………
    a. 1 test case
    b. 3 Test Cases
    c. 4 Test Cases
    d. Not achievable

    If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass
    (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class?
    A. 23, 24, 25
    B. 0, 12, 25
    C. 30, 36, 39
    D. 32, 37, 40
    Consider the following statements:
    i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
    ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
    iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
    iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
    v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
    a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
    b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
    c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
    d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
    Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
    a) Expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behavior
    b) Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
    c) Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
    d) Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
    The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software
    product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
    a) Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
    b) Software delivery is behind schedule
    c) Threat to a patient’s life
    d) 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated
    A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect
    registered and enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to
    test the status tracking, which method would be best?
    a) Logic-based testing
    b) Use-case-based testing
    c) State transition testing
    d) Systematic testing according to the V-model
    Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
    a) Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the
    testware and the test object
    b) Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change
    control board
    c) Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
    d) Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

    What test items should be put under configuration management?
    a) The test object, the test material and the test environment
    b) The problem reports and the test material
    c) Only the test objects. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
    d) The test object and the test material

    Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
    (I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
    (II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
    (III) The specification was unclear
    (IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
    (V) The testers were not certified
    a) (I) and (II) are correct
    b) (I) through (IV) are correct
    c) (III) through (V) are correct
    d) (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

    Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
    a) For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one
    used British units
    b) The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
    c) The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding
    the input error cause
    d) Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

    Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
    (I) contractual requirements
    (II) Legal requirements
    (III) Industry standards
    (IV) Application risk
    (V) Project size
    a) (I) through (III) are correct
    b) All alternatives are correct
    c) (II) and (V) are correct
    d) (I), (III) and (V) are correct
    Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?
    a) The version number of the test object
    b) Test data and used environment
    c) Identification of the test case that failed
    d) The location and instructions on how to correct the fault
    Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
    a) As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide
    what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.
    b) Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
    c) A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule
    the test-cycles
    d) Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme
    cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place
    In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
    i. Determine the test technique to be employed
    ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
    iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
    iv. Determine the cost of the project
    a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
    b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
    d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false
    Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
    i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool
    on the project.
    ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
    iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
    iv. Create the Test Specifications
    a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
    b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
    c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
    d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

    Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
    a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
    b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
    c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
    d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
    Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
    a) Determining the test approach.
    b) Preparing test specifications.
    c) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
    d) Measuring and analyzing results.

    What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
    a) To communicate how incidents will be managed.
    b) To communicate how testing will be performed.
    c) To produce a test schedule.
    d) To produce a work breakdown structure.
    In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the
    test design work to be begun?
    a) After the software or system has been produced.
    b) During development.
    c) As early as possible.
    d) During requirements analysis.

    What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
    a) To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
    b) To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
    c) To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
    d) To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.

    Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
    a) An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote
    the software.
    b) An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works
    than the person who wrote the software.
    c) An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less
    familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
    d) An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the
    person who wrote the software.

    For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns
    of Configuration Management?
    i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
    ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
    iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
    iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
    v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
    vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
    a) i, iv, vi.
    b) ii, iii, v.
    c) i, iii, iv.
    d) iv, v, vi.

    Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
    a) An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote
    the software.
    b) An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works
    than the person who wrote the software.
    c) An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less
    familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
    d) An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the
    person who wrote the software.

    For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns
    of Configuration Management?
    i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
    ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
    iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
    iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
    v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
    vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
    a) i, iv, vi.
    b) ii, iii, v.
    c) i, iii, iv.
    d) iv, v, vi.

    A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
    following EXCEPT:
    a) generating expected outputs
    b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
    c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
    d) recording test inputs
    e) reading test values from a data file

    The software engineer’s role in tool selection is
    a) To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
    b) To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
    c) To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
    d) To identify, evaluate and select the tools

    Which tool store information about versions and builds of software and
    testware?
    a. Test Management tool
    b. Requirements management tool
    c. Configuration management tool
    d. Static analysis tool
    Static analysis tools are typically used by
    a. Testers
    b. Developers
    c. Business analysts
    d. Customers
    Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of
    a testing tool?
    a) Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
    b) Complete the testing of a key project.
    c) Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
    d) Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
    10) Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
    a) Dynamic Analysis tool.
    b) Test Execution tool.
    c) Static Analysis tool.
    d) Security tool.

    Which tools help to support static testing?
    a) Static analysis tools and test execution tools
    b) Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools
    c) Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools
    d) Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools
    14) Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework
    tools?
    a) Test management and control
    b) Test specification and design
    c) Test execution and logging
    d) Performance and monitoring
    15) Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution
    tools?
    a) Data-driven and keyword-driven
    b) Data-driven and capture-driven
    c) Capture driven and keyhole-driven
    d) playback-driven and keyword-driven
    16) What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
    a) Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much
    b) Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution
    tool has been purchased
    c) The tool may find defects that aren’t there.
    d) The till will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous thing
    17) Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?
    a) Test management and control
    b) Test specification and design
    c) Test execution and logging
    d) Performance and monitoring
    18) Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to
    support testing?
    1 over reliance on the tools
    2 greater consistency and repeatability
    3 objective assessment
    4 unrealistic expectations
    5 underestimating the effort require maintaining the test assets generated by the tool
    6 ease of access to information about tests or testing
    7 repetitive work is reduced
    a) Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5
    58
    b) Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7. Risks: 4, 5 and 6
    c) Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5
    d) Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7
    19) Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool
    evaluation?
    a) Decide tool to acquire
    b) Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool
    c) Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects
    d) Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the
    test assets
    20) Which success factors are required for good tool support within an
    organization?
    a) Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it
    b) Adopting process to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits
    c) Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving
    them.
    d) Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of
    using the tool are maintained.
    21) Which of the following factor is Not important in selecting a tool?
    a) Cost of the tool
    b) evaluation of tools against clear requirements and objective criteria
    c) Assessment of the organization’s maturity
    d) Identifying and planning internal implementation
    22) Which of the following are not strictly testing tools?
    a) Test execution tools
    b) Configuration management tools
    c) Unit test framework tools
    d) Incident management tools
    23) Coverage measurement tools are useful to
    a) Record tests and Automated test execution
    b) Test components or part of a system by simulating the environment
    c) Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure
    d) Check for computer viruses and denial of service attacks
    24) Determining differences between files, databases or test results are
    objectives of
    a) Security tools
    b) Test data preparation tools
    c) Test comparators
    d) Monitoring tools
    25) Which of the following types of tools haven’t special considerations?
    a) Static analysis tools
    b) Performance testing tools
    c) Test management tools
    d) Test design tools

  8. For Q 7 answer should be ‘D’.

  9. Thanks a lot! Good way of explanation!
    Keep Updating!!

  10. Question 7. Verification involves which of the following:-

    Explanation and the answer selected seems to be contradicting…

    Explanation:
    b) Option b: Verification checks that we have built the right product.

    Which explains as the statement was correct but the answer was chosen which marks it wrong.

    Answer selected: ‘B’

  11. Hello sandhya,
    I am preparing for ISTQB need to your help. please send me the istqb sample question papers and also guide me to clear the exam

  12. Q. Given the Following program
    IF X = Z
    THEN Statement 2;
    END
    McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

  13. IF X = Z
    THEN Statement 2;
    END
    McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

  14. Hello sandhya
    this is use full to every one,if you have any material send me my mail, my mail id is richagiri0@gmail.com

  15. HI,
    7th question answer is wrong.Ans is D.

  16. Hi Satish –

    can you please send the responses to the questions you posted (kandhu73@gmail.com)

    thanks
    kandhu

  17. Hi Sandya,

    Answer for seventh Qtn is D. but the explanation is correct.

    Thank you so much for your guidance

  18. Thanks, was useful visiting the page.

  19. thnks for giving explanations…
    Where can i get latest istqb questions

  20. 2nd question answer is C.
    Environment availability will be verified in Test Analysis and Design phase, Not in Implementation and execution phase.

  21. Hi Sandhya… Nice help… Can you please take up some questions about the statement and branch coverage, including explaination. In almost all papers there are atleast 2 questions in that area and I dont understand how to solve thse.

  22. Thanks for this useful article !

    can you send me more questions and their answers ?

    here is my email id : riham_t86@hotmail.com

    Thanks :D

  23. Question 07:

    Looking at the Evaluation details, the correct Ans. should be ‘D’ and not ‘B’.

  24. Hi All,
    Yes, i agree with comment #220 and #226.The answer for Question no 7 should be ‘D’

  25. Easy to understand sensitive topics.

  26. Nice and useful article.
    Please put some more examples on Risk analysis and standards used in ISTQB.

  27. Question 6. Explanation is bad. How come Static techniques have nothing to do with code when option D is : cyclomatic complexity?

  28. Thank you for your helpful article: I believe that question contains an error; the question uses numbers for options i, ii, iii, iv and your answers for the options use letters a, b, c, d.

    a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
    b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
    c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a(i): The quality of the product can be checked only after building it.
    Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
    b) Option b(ii): Verification checks that we have built the right product.
    c) Option c(iii): it does not help in developing the product
    d) Option d(iv): it does not involve monitory activities.

    So, the answer is ‘B’(option ii in your evaluation) which relates to option D in the Options in the question.
    I believe the correct answer should be ‘D’.

  29. The comment above refers to question 7.

  30. I agree with Paul. For question 7 answer should be D not B

  31. Q. 29: Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing
    A. Test Analysis
    B. Test Design
    C. Test Execution
    D. Test Planning

    Q. 40: Objective of review meeting is
    A. To identify problems with design
    B. To solve the problems with design
    C. Both A. and B
    D. None of the above.

    IF A > B THEN
    C = A – B
    ELSE
    C = A + B
    ENDIF
    Read D
    IF C = D Then
    Print “Error”
    ENDIF
    A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q. 11: Test managers should not:
    A. Report on deviations from the project plan
    B. Sign the system off for release
    C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
    D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
    E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

    Q. 5: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is
    called:
    A. A dynamic analysis tool
    B. A test execution tool
    C. A debugging tool
    D. A test management tool
    E. A configuration management tool(Answer is incorrect)

    Q. 12: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.
    The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip
    the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which
    of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?
    A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
    B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
    C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
    D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

    Q. 35: Where may functional testing be performed?
    A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
    B. At all test levels.
    C. At all levels above integration testing.
    D. At the acceptance testing level only.

    Q. 33: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?
    A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
    B. Initiating corrective actions.
    C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
    D. Measuring and analyzing results.

    Q. 23: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life
    cycle:
    i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
    ii. Code b Acceptance tests
    iii. Low-level design c System tests
    iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
    A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
    B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
    C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
    D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

    Q. 31: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover
    the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO
    Exhibit:
    A. D, A, B, C.
    B. A, B, C, D.
    C. D, A, B.
    D. A, B, C.

    Q. 27: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
    A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
    B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
    C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.
    D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed

    Q. 47: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision
    coverage for the following fragment of code.
    if width > length
    then
    biggest_dimension = width
    else
    biggest_dimension = length
    end_if
    The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above.
    print “Biggest dimension is ” & biggest_dimension
    print “Width: ” & width
    print “Length: ” & length
    How many more test cases are required?
    A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.
    B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be
    used to provide 100% decision coverage.
    C. None, existing test cases can be used.
    D. One more test case will be required for 100″ statement coverage.

    Q. 31: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates tge operating environment
    in any way is considered non-invasive
    A. True
    B. False

    Q. 27: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes
    A. Programming standard violations
    B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
    C. Security vulnerabilities
    D. All Above

    Q. 20: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design
    specifications.
    A. Test Summary report
    B. Test Log
    C. Test Incident Report
    D. Test Script

    Q. 19: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of
    decision directions executed by the test case designed is called
    A. Condition coverage
    B. Decision/Condition coverage
    C. Decision Coverage
    D. Branch coverage

    Q. 18: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that
    each program function is operational is called
    A. Black-box testing
    B. Glass-box testing
    C. Grey-box testing
    D. White-box testing

    Q. 14: Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
    A. Dynamic Analysis tool.
    B. Test Execution tool.
    C. Static Analysis tool.
    D. Security tool

    Q. 2: Which of the following statements is not true
    A. Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of
    whole system
    B. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
    C. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
    D. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

    Q. 16: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies
    that data recovery is properly performed. The following should be checked for
    correctness
    1. Re-initialization
    2. Restart
    3. Data Recovery
    4. Check Point Mechanism
    A. 1 and 2
    B. 1, 2 and 3
    C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    D. 2 and 4

    Q. 13: Verification involves which of the following :-
    i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
    ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
    iii. Helps in developing the product
    iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
    A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
    B. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
    C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    D. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

  32. Nice article….

    Question 7 the answer must be ‘D’ as per tge explanation

    not ‘B’ i guess

    Thank you…!!

  33. i didn’t understand the 10th question.
    i didn’t understand the explanation of 10th answer..how to choose that.am bit confused in choosing that option.
    can you explain me in detain please…if you don’t mind

  34. severity of the bug indicate;

  35. Can You please explain the 7th question solution,because answer is correct but I am confused with the explanation.

  36. Hi,
    According to the explanation of question 7 , answer should be D as option ii is correct one.
    Thanks

  37. THE EXPLANATION IS WRONG WITH CORRECT ANSWER
    we need to differentiate between validation and verification. verification is done when something is done/built, the product in this case. Validation is if correct system is going to be produced/built.

    7. Verification involves which of the following:-
    i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
    ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
    iii. Helps in developing the product
    iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

    ————
    a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
    b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
    c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a: The quality of the product can be checked only after building it.
    Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
    b) Option b: Verification checks that we have built the right product.
    c) Option c: it does not help in developing the product
    d) Option d: it does not involve monitory activities.

    So, the answer is ‘B’

  38. Nice Article….

    Hi My Question is :

    If I Given one time ISTQB Foundation level exam then i fail to crack so when can i give that exam next? What is the Procedure to reapply ?

    i.e suppose i give exam in march 2016 and fail so i m applicable to give that exam in next conduct exam for example in April 2016.

    Pls kindly Guide me for that and give Reference also
    Thanks

  39. Hi,will you please clarify below question
    Test mangers should not:
    A.Report on deviations from the project plan
    B. Sign the system off for release
    C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
    D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
    E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

  40. […]IF you want your Ex back in 3 days..contact Email- (dr.mac@yahoo. com)…He is the best[…]…

  41. I have some ISTQB questions but don’t have correct answer. Could you please help me give the correct answer. Thanks

    1.
    A. Validation is for implemeting the correct thing
    B. Verification is for implementing the thing correct

    a/ A is True and B is TRue
    b/ A is True and B is False
    c/ A is False and B is False
    d/ A is False and B is True

    2. In a software application, there was implementation done based on the 4 age groups as 0 – 10, 11-25, 26-50, and 50+. Which testing technique you will apply to find out possible issues in the application without running it
    a/ Classification tree
    b/ Equivalence Partitioning System
    c/ Boundary Value Analysis
    d/ Error Guessing

    3. Error handling in code is mainly done as there are erros in the code
    a/ True
    b/ False

    4. Which type of testing requires Stubs and drivers? Select one anwser that applies correctly
    a/ Integration Testing
    b/ Component Testing
    c/ Bottom Up Testing
    d/ Top Down Testing

    5. Test cases can be designed in the exploratory testing
    a/ True
    b/ False

    6. Which of the following is not an input to the deisgn phase? Select one answer that applies correctly
    a/ A functional Specification
    b/ BRD
    c/ Program Specifications
    d/ Technical Architecture document

    7. ____ identifies many possible reasons for an issues or an error. It gives quick ideas for useful categories. Select one answer that applies correctly
    a/ Fish-Bone diagram
    b/ Histogram
    c/ Pareto analysis
    d/ Decision table

    8. Error added by programmer intentionally in the code is called as _________
    a/ Error seeding
    b/ Error handling
    c/ Error planting
    d/ Error guessing

    9. The testing performed on data for performing the basic operation on it is called as ____
    a/ CRUD Testing
    b/ Data Driven Testing
    c/ Data Validation techniques
    d/ Data Mining

    10. To ensure the quality of software is a process that can only be made by using it. Therefore, reading the code cannot be useful in any way
    a/ True
    b/ False

    11. Functions and procedures used for each unit needs to be documented in ____
    a/ Unit Test Plan
    b/ Program Specifications
    c/ Functional Specifications
    d/ Design Specifications

    12/ The functionalities to be covered or not is specified in one of the following
    a/ Test Plan
    b/ Test Strategy
    c/ Test Reporting
    d/ Test Approach

    13. Error Handling, Exception Handling & Memory leakage can be determined by
    a/ Program Review
    b/ Code Review
    c/ Test Case Review
    d/ None of the above

    14. The technique used for finding the few origins of majors issues withing the aplication is known as:
    a/ Histogram
    b/ Fishbone diagram
    c/ Pareto Technique
    d/ Classification Tree Technique

    15. _____determines if a new software version is perfroming well enough to accept for a major testing effert
    a/ Black Box Testing
    n/ Sanity Testing
    c/ Regression Testing
    d/ Stress Testing
    e/ Load Testing

    16. FP and lines of code are measure of ______
    a/ Effort
    b/ Schedule
    c/ Size
    d/ All of the above

    17. Behavior driven testing focuses on the _________
    a/ Requirements
    b/ Specifications
    c/ Test Plan
    d/ Agile Methodology

    18. Having Risk management in a project helps in
    i. Mitigating the risks associated with the project
    ii. Managing project without surprises
    iii. Identifying potential problems
    iv. Project Plan contingency

    a/ i, iii, iv
    b/ ii, iii, iv
    c/ i, ii, iii
    d/ i, ii, iii, iv

    19. Testing interfaces between unit, modules and sub-systems when the system is incrementally put together is known as _____
    a/ Destructive Testing
    b/ Integrated Testing
    c/ Integration Testing
    d/ User Interface Testing

    20. The Cyclomatic Complexity helps to understand ______
    i. Code Complexity
    ii. Testing Complexity
    iii. Efforst & Cost
    iv. Planning Test Execution

    a/ i, ii, iii, iv
    b/ i, iii, iv
    c/ i, ii
    d/ i, ii, iii
    e/ only ii

  42. I m also giving ISTQB foundation level exam on 14th feb ..if u have any material n new qns papers please send me on

  43. I m also giving ISTQB foundation level exam on 14th feb ..if u have any material n new qns papers please send me on

  44. Hi Sandhya,

    The article is very useful. Thank you so much for your fantastic article.

  45. wonderful points altogether, you simply received a new reader. What might you recommend about your post that you simply made some days in the past? Any sure?

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