15 Top CAPM Exam Questions and Answers (Sample Test Questions)

Most Popular CAPM Exam Questions and Answers:

A list of CAPM Exam Questions and answers are explained in detail here in this tutorial.

=> Read our Part 2 in this series here: CAPM Examination Details and some Helpful Tips

We had a detailed look at the CAPM Exam format along with several useful tips to clear the exam successfully in the first attempt in our previous tutorial.

Here, the first section contains solved questions with detailed explanations. And the last section contains some practice questions with the answer key at the end for you to get familiarized with.

CAPM Exam Questions

Most Frequently asked CAPM Exam Questions and Answers

Given below is a list of most frequently asked CAPM Exam Questions and Answers that would help you to get an idea of the examination.

Q #1) Which of the following is one of the Tools and Techniques of Control Quality Process?

a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Meetings
c) Process Analysis
d) Inspection

Solution: This question is based on the Control Quality Process in the Project Quality Management Knowledge area. We will follow the process of elimination in order to select the right answer.

Cost-benefit analysis and meetings are the techniques that are used for the Plan Quality Management process. Process analysis is used in Perform Quality Assurance process and is used to identify the required improvements.

Thus, it is safe to eliminate the first three choices, as they do not fall in the correct process group. We are left with the last choice which is Inspection. Inspection is conducted to determine if the delivered product meets the required quality standards.

Therefore the correct answer is D.

Q #2) Which technique is used for determining the reason for variances between the baseline and actual performance?

a) Variance analysis
b) An organizational process asset
c) Earned value
d) Pareto Chart

Solution: Again, we will follow the process of elimination, Pareto chart is a quality tool, organizations process asset is not a technique – it is an asset and earned value measures the work performed on the project.

Variance analysis is the technique that is used in the Control Scope process in Project Scope Management for finding the cause and variance between the agreed baseline and the actual performance.

Therefore the correct answer is A.

Q #3) What is the schedule variance of a project if the earned value is 899 and the planned value is 1099?

a) 200.000
b) – 200.000
c) 0.889
d) 1.125

Solution: This answer requires direct application of the Schedule variance formula.

As you may recall, Schedule Variance (SV) = Earned Value – Planned Value. Therefore schedule variance comes out to be

SV = 899-1099 = -200

Therefore the correct answer is B.

Q #4) You have just started a project for a retailer. The Project team members report that they are 20% percent complete with the project. You spent $5,000 of the $75,000 budget allocated for the project.

Calculate the earned value for this project?

a) 7%
b) $15,000
c) $75,000
d) Not enough information to know

Solution: Earned value, in this case, would be the budget allocated multiplied by the % of the project completed.

It comes out to be 20% X $75,000 = $15,000.

Therefore the correct answer is B.

Q #5) Based on the information provided in the table below, determine which task is on schedule and within the budget?

TaskPlanned Value (PV)Actual Value (AV)Earned Value (EV)
A100150100
B200200200
C300250280

a) Task A
b) Task B
c) Task C
d) Unable to determine, Insufficient information

Solution: Schedule Performance index (SPI) will help to determine if the project is on schedule. SPI greater than 1.0 means project is ahead of the schedule & when SPI is exactly 1.0 means the project is on schedule and less than 1.0 means that the project is behind Schedule.

Cost Performance Index (CPI) will help to determine if the project is within your budget or not. CPI greater than 1.0 means the project is under planned cost, CPI exactly 1.0 means that the project is within the planned cost and less than 1.0 means the project is over the planned cost.

SPI = EV / PV and CPI = EV / AC

When SPI and CPI are calculated for all tasks, only Task B has SPI = 1 and CPI = 1. Hence Task B is on schedule and within the budget.

Therefore the correct answer is B.

Q #6) Which of the following describes a work breakdown structure?

a) It is a statistical technique to measure quality
b) Is an environmental factor
c) It is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope into manageable components
d) the resource requirement

Solution: By definition, a WBS or work breakdown structure is the process of breaking down the project deliverables and working more into manageable chunks or components.

Therefore the correct answer is C.

Q #7) Which of the following is NOT one of the tools and techniques that are used in the Sequence Activities Process?

a) Leads and Lags
b) Dependency determination
c) Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
d) Critical Chain method

Solution: Out of the options provided, Critical chain method is one of the tools and techniques for Develop Schedule Process and hence it is not used in the Sequence Activities Process. Rest 3 options are used in Sequence Activities Process as mentioned in the PMBOK Guide.

Therefore the correct answer is C.

Q #8) Which of the following process does not fall under the Planning process group?

a) Control Costs
b) Plan resource management
c) Plan procurement management
d) Develop Schedule

Solution: Recall the mapping of processes- process groups –knowledge areas. All the options b,c, and d describe some sort of planning activity. However, option a is about cost control and should, therefore, be a part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group.

Therefore the correct answer is A.

Q #9) You have been appointed as the Project manager of an upcoming internal project. Who will provide you with the Statement of work (SOW)?

a) Customer
b) Project Sponsor
c) Project Manager provides SOW
d) None of the above

Solution: SOW is one of the inputs for Develop Project Charter process. If the project is external, the SOW is provided by the customer. However, if the project is internal, the SOW is provided by the Project Sponsor or Project Initiator.

Therefore the correct answer is B.

Q #10) Which of the following is an input for Plan Stakeholder Management Process?

a) Stakeholder Register
b) Analytical Techniques
c) Issue Log
d) Change requests

Solution: A stakeholder register contains the details related to the identified stakeholders of a project along with their extent of potential influence of each stakeholder, their contact information, main expectations etc.

Rest of the options are either tools and techniques or outputs of various processes in the Project stakeholder management Knowledge Area.

Therefore the correct answer is A.

Q #11) What is a risk register?

a) Contains information about all stakeholders
b) Contains project charter
c) Contains project scope
d) Contains information related to risks identified – E.g. identified risks, the root cause of risks, risk priority, risk analysis, and response, etc.

Solution: Risk register is an Input for Plan Risk Responses process. Option a, b and c are not a part of the Project Risk Management Knowledge area and can be eliminated from the correct answer choices.

Therefore the correct answer is D.

Q #12) Which of the following factors do NOT affect the choice of communication technology used?

a) The urgency of the need for information
b) Availability of technology
c) Stakeholder register
d) Ease of use

Solution: Choosing an appropriate communication technology is a part of the Plan communication management process. Depending on the project, the choice of communication technology will vary.

For Example, a project with an external customer may require more formal communication versus internal project, which may have relaxed, and more casual communication technology. Out of all the options provided, stakeholder register options is out of place – stakeholder register contains the information of all the project stakeholders.

Therefore the correct answer is C.

Q #13) Virtual teams model makes it possible.

a) For specialists and teams not geographically collocated to work together on a project.
b) To include people with mobility limitations to work and collaborate.
c) Form teams of people in different countries, time zone, and shifts.
d) All of the above

Solution: Virtual teams provide various advantages over the traditional co-located team model. All the options mentioned in the question are all the listed benefits of having a virtual team.

Therefore the correct answer is D.

Q #14) Which of the following is NOT a project document?

a) Agreement
b) Process documentation
c) Stakeholder Register
d) All the above are not project documents

Solution: Options a, b and c are examples of project documents that are created, maintained and updated during the project life cycle. In fact, option d is incorrect here.

Therefore the correct answer is D.

Q #15) What is the difference between a Project management plan and Project documents?

a) Project management plan is the primary document to manage the project and the other documents called project documents are also additionally used.
b) There is no difference, they are the same.
c) Insufficient information
d) None of the above

Solution: Difference between project management plan and other project documents has been made clear in the Project Integration management Knowledge area. Essentially all the other (project documents) are not a part of the project management plan.

Therefore the correct answer is A.

Practice Questions

Q #1) Which one of the following is NOT an Enterprise environmental factor?

a) Government standards
b) Regulations
c) Historical information
d) Marketplace conditions

Q #2) Which of the following is a strategy for dealing with negative risks or threats?

a) Avoid
b) Transfer
c) Accept
d) All the above

Q #3) What is the correct order of team development that the teams go through?

a) Adjourning, Performing, Norming
b) Adjourning, Forming, Norming
c) Forming, Storming, Performing
d) None of above

Q #4) Interpersonal skills of an effective project manager include?

a) Leadership
b) Influencing
c) Effective decision making
d) All the above

Q #5) In which organizational structure does the project manager has maximum control over the team?

a) Functional
b) Strong Matrix
c) Balanced Matrix
d) Projectized

Practice Questions Answer Key

1. c
2. d
3. c
4. d
5. d

We hope that the entire range of tutorials in the CAPM series would have been of immense help to you. We wish you all success!!

Did you miss any tutorial in this series? here is the list again:

Part 1: CAPM Certification Guide
Part 2: CAPM Examination Details and some Helpful Tips
Part 3: CAPM Sample Test Questions with Solutions