ISTQB software testing certification sample question paper with answers – Part II

In continuation with our Previous article on “ISTQB software testing certification sample papers and tips to solve the questions quickly“, we are posting next set of ISTQB exam sample questions and answers with detailed evaluation for each option.

This is a guest article by “N. Sandhya Rani”.

ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ sample questions with answers and detailed evaluation of each option:

1. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-

a) Breadth Test and Depth Test

b) Retesting

c) Confirmation Testing

d) Sanity Testing

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Breadth testing is a test suite that exercises the full functionality of a product but does not test features in detail. Depth testing is a test that exercises a feature of a product in full detail.

b) Option b: Retesting is part of regression

c) Option c: Confirmation testing is a synonym for retesting

d) Option d: Sanity testing does not include full functionality

Maintenance testing includes testing some features in detail (for the e.g. environment) and for some features, detail testing is not required. It’s a mix of both breadth and depth testing.

So, the answer is ‘A’

2. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).

ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations

iii. Formal Follow up the process.

iv. Main Objective is to find defects

a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false

b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false

c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true

d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

Evaluating the options:

Consider the first point (i). This is true, Inspection is led by a trained moderator. Hence we can eliminate options (a) and (d). Now consider the second point. In Inspection pre-meeting preparation is required. So this point is false. Look for an option where (i) is true and (ii) is false.

The answer is ‘B’

3. The Phases of the formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.

i. Planning

ii. Review Meeting

iii. Rework

iv. Individual Preparations

v. Kick Off

vi. Follow Up

a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi

b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v

c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi

d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

Evaluating the options:

The formal review process is ’Inspection’. Planning is a foremost step. Hence we can eliminate option ’b’. Now we need to kick off the process, so the second step will be Kick off. That’s it we found the answer. Its ’C’

The answer is ’C’

4. Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off.

Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?

a. A,C,B

b. B,C,A

c. A,B,C

d. C,B,A

Evaluating the options:

In State transition testing a test is defined for each state transition. The coverage that is achieved by this testing is called 0-switch or branch coverage. 0-switch coverage is to execute each loop once (No repetition. We should start with initial state and go till end state. It does not test ‘sequence of two state transitions’). In this case, the start state is ‘OFF’, and then a press of the button turns it on to Speed 1 (i.e. A). A second press turns it on to Speed 2 (i.e. B) and the third press turns it off (i.e. C). Here we do not test the combinations like what if the start state is ‘Speed 1’ or ‘Speed 2’ etc.

An alternate way of solving this is check for the options where it starts with ‘OFF’ state. So we have options ‘a’ and ‘c’ to select from. As per the state diagram from ‘OFF’ state the dryer goes to ‘Speed 1’ and then to ‘Speed 2’. So our answer should start with ‘A’ and end with ‘C’.

The answer is ’C’

5. White Box Techniques are also called as:-

a) Structural Testing

b) Design Based Testing

c) Error Guessing Technique

d) Experience-Based Technique

Evaluating the options:

I guess no evaluation is required here. It’s a straight answer. White box techniques are also called as Structural testing. (as it is done using code)

The answer is ‘A’

6. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?

a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects

b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case

c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case

d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.

Evaluating the options:

Let’s recall the definition of equivalence partition. It is grouping inputs into valid and invalid classes. Hence anyone values from one particular class form an input. For e.g. input a valid class contains values from 3-5, then any value between 3-5 is considered as an input. All values are supposed to yield the same output. Hence one value in this range becomes a test case.

The answer is ‘B’

7. The Test Cases Derived from use cases

a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system

b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system

c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system

d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

Evaluating the options:

Please refer to a Use case related topic in the foundation level guide “Use cases describe the “process flows” through a system based on its actual likely use” (actual likely use is nothing but the real world use of the system). Use cases are useful for uncovering defects. Hence we can eliminate options (c ) and (d). Use case uncovers defects in process flow during real-world use of the system.

The answer is ‘A’

8. Exhaustive Testing is

a) Is impractical but possible

b) Is practically possible

c) Is impractical and impossible

d) Is always possible

Evaluating the options:

From the definition given in the syllabus, Exhaustive testing is impossible. But it is possible in trivial cases. Exhaustive testing is not always possible. So eliminate option ‘d’. It is not impossible also. So eliminate option ‘c’. But implementing is impractical. Hence we can conclude that exhaustive testing is impractical but possible

The answer is ‘A’

9. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase

a) Creating test suites from the test cases

b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools

c) Comparing actual results

d) Designing the Tests

Evaluating the options:

Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. Test implementation does include Creating test suites, executing and comparing results. Hence eliminate options a, b and c. The only option left is ‘D’. Designing activities come before implementation.

The answer is ‘D’

10. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?

a) Statement Testing and coverage

b) Decision Testing and coverage

c) Condition Coverage

d) Boundary value analysis

Evaluating the options:

Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. We have to choose the one which is not a part of white box technique. The statement, decision, condition are the terms used in white box. So eliminate options a, b and c. Boundary value is part of a black box.

The answer is ‘D’

11. A Project risk includes which of the following

a) Organizational Factors

b) Poor Software characteristics

c) Error-Prone software delivered.

d) Software that does not perform its intended functions

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Organizational factors can be part of project risk.

b) Option b: Poor software characteristics are part of the software. It’s not a risk

c) Option c: Error-prone software delivered. Again it’s a part of the software.

d) Option d: Software that does not perform its intended functions. Again it’s a part of the software.

The answer is ‘A’

12. In a risk-based approach, the risks identified may be used to :

i. Determine the test technique to be employed

ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out

iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.

iv. Determine the cost of the project

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False

d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Risks identified can be used to determine the test technique.

b) Option b: Risks can be used to determine the extent of testing required. For e.g. if there are P1 bugs in a software, then it is a risk to release it. Hence we can increase the testing cycle to reduce the risk

c) Option c: If risk areas are identified beforehand, then we can prioritize testing to find defects asap.

d) Option d: Risk does not determine the cost of the project. It determines the impact on the project as a whole.

Check for the option where first 3 points are true. Its ‘B’

The answer is ‘B’

13. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.

ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data

iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.

iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false

c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false

d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Evaluating the options:

Not much explanation is needed in this case. As a tester, we do all the activities mentioned in options (ii), (iii) and (iv).

The answer is ‘B’

14. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following:-

a) Explaining the objectives

b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.

c) Follow up

d) Individual Meeting preparations

Evaluating the options:

In this case, elimination will work best. Follow-up is not a planning activity. It’s a post-task. Hence eliminate option ‘b’. Individual meeting preparation is an activity for the individual. It’s not a planning activity. Hence eliminate option ‘d’. Now we are left with 2 options ‘a’ and ‘b’, read those 2-3 times. We can identify that option ‘b’ is most appropriate. The planning phase of formal review does include selecting personnel and allocation of roles. Explaining the objectives is not part of review process. (this is also written in the FL syllabus)

The answer is ‘B’

15. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.

a) Moderator.

b) Scribe

c) Author

d) Manager

Evaluating the options:

I hope there is not confusion here. The answer is a scribe.

The answer is ‘B’

16. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review:-

i. Manager

ii. Moderator

iii. Scribe / Recorder

iv. Assistant Manager

a) i,ii,iii,iv are true

b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.

c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.

d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Evaluating the options:

The question is regarding the formal review, means Inspection. First, we will try to identify the persons that we are familiar w.r.t Inspection. Manager, Moderator and Scribe are involved in Inspection. So now we have only first 2 options to select from. (other 2 options are eliminated). There is no assistant manager in Inspection.

The answer is ‘B’

17. Which of the following are a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

a) Scenario, Dry Run, Peer Group

b) Pre Meeting Preparations

c) Formal Follow Up Process

d) Includes Metrics

Evaluating the options:

Pre-meeting preparation is part of Inspection. Also, Walkthrough is not a formal process. Metrics are part of Inspection. Hence eliminating ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.

The answer is ‘A’

18. What can static analysis NOT find?

a) the use of a variable before it has been defined

b) unreachable (“dead”) code

c) memory leaks

d) array bound violations

Evaluating the options:

The static analysis covers all the above options except ‘Memory leaks’. (Please refer to the FL syllabus. Its written clearly over there)

The answer is ‘C’

19. Incidents would not be raised against:

a) requirements

b) documentation

c) test cases

d) improvements suggested by users

Evaluating the options:

The first three options are obvious options for which incidents are raised. The last option can be thought as an enhancement. It is a suggestion from the users and not an incident.

The answer is ‘D’

20. A Type of Functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.

a) Security Testing

b) Recovery Testing

c) Performance Testing

d) Functionality Testing

Evaluating the options:

The terms used in the question like detection of threats, virus etc point towards the security issues. Also, security testing is a part of Functional testing. In security testing, we investigate the threats from malicious outsiders etc.

The answer is ‘A’

21. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

b) Logging the outcome of test execution.

c) Assessing if more tests are needed.

d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Evaluating the options:

The question is ‘not’ a major task. Option ‘a’ is a major task. So eliminate this. Option ‘b’ is not a major task. (But yes, logging of outcome is important). Option ‘c’ and ‘d’ both are major tasks of Exit criteria. So eliminate these two.

The answer is ‘B’

22. Testing wherein we subject the target of the test, to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviours and the ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.

a) Load Testing

b) Integration Testing

c) System Testing

d) Usability Testing

Evaluating the options:

Workloads, performance are terms that come under Load testing. Also as can be seen from the other options, they are not related to load testing. So we can eliminate them.

The answer is ‘A’

23. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is:-

a) System Level Testing

b) Integration Level Testing

c) Unit Level Testing

d) Component Testing

Evaluating the options:

We have to identify the testing activity which finds defects which occur due to interaction or integration. Option ‘a’ is not related to integration. Option ‘c’ is unit testing. Option ‘d’ component is again a synonym for unit testing. Hence eliminating these three options.

The answer is ‘B’

24. Static analysis is best described as:

a) The analysis of batch programs.

b) The reviewing of test plans.

c) The analysis of program code.

d) The use of black box testing.

Evaluating the options:

In this case, we have to choose an option, which ‘best’ describes static analysis. Most of the options given here are very close to each other. We have to carefully read them.

a) Option a: Analysis is part of a static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.

b) Option b: Reviews are part of a static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.

c) Option c: Static analysis does analyze program code.

d) Option d: This option can be ruled out, as a black box is a dynamic testing.

The answer is ‘C’

25. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphanumeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class


b) Book

c) Boo01k

d) book

Evaluating the options:

As we know, alphanumeric is a combination of alphabets and numbers. Hence we have to choose an option which has both of these.

a. Option a: contains only alphabets. (to create confusion they are given in capitals)

b. Option b: contains only alphabets. (the only difference from above option is that all letters are not in capitals)

c. Option c: contains both alphabets and numbers

d. Option d: contains only alphabets but in lower case

The answer is ‘C’

26. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

a) Test Analysis and Design

b) Test Implementation and execution

c) Test Closure Activities

d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:

Test basis comprises of requirements, architecture, design, interfaces. By looking at these words, we can straight away eliminate last two options. Now option ‘a’ is about test analysis and design. This comes under test basis. Option ‘b’ is about implementation and execution which come after the design process. So the best option is ‘a’.

The answer is ‘A’

27. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:-

a) Test Analysis and Design

b) Test Implementation and execution

c) Test Closure Activities

d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:

The incident is reporting discrepancies, in other terms its defect/bug. We find defects while execution cycle where we execute the test cases.

The answer is ‘B’

28. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

a) operating systems

b) test documentation

c) live data

d) user requirement document

Evaluating the options:

We have to choose an option which does ‘not’ come under Configuration Management (CM). CM is about maintaining the integrity of the products like components, data and documentation.

a) Option a: maintaining the Operating system configuration that has been used in the test cycle is part of CM.

b) Option b: Test documentation is part of CM

c) Option c: Data is part of CM. but here the option is ‘live data’ which is not part of CM. The live data keeps on changing (in real scenario).

d) Option d: Requirements and documents are again part of CM

The only option that does not fall under CM is ‘c’

The answer is ‘C’

29. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase

a) Test Analysis and Design

b) Test Planning and control

c) Test Closure Activities

d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:

Hand over is typically a process which is part of closure activities. It is not part of analysis, design or planning activity. Also, it is not part of evaluating exit criteria. After a closure of test cycle, test-ware is handover to the maintenance organization.

The answer is ‘C’

30. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.

a) 12,16,22

b) 24,27,17

c) 22,23,24

d) 14,15,19

Evaluating the options:

Read the question carefully. We have to choose values from the same class. So first divide the classes. When the temperature falls below 18 switches is turned off. This forms a class (as shown below). When the temperature is more than 21, the switch is turned on. For values between 18 to 21, no action is taken. This also forms a class as shown below.

Class I: less than 18 (switch turned off)

Class II: 18 to 21

Class III: above 21 (switch turned on)

From the given options select the option which has values from only one particular class. Option ‘a’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option ‘b’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option ‘c’ values are in one class. Option ‘d’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. (please note that the question does not talk about valid or invalid classes. It is only about values in same class)

The answer is ‘C’

About the Author:

“N. Sandhya Rani” is having around 4 years of experience in software testing mostly in manual testing. She is helping many aspirant software testers to clear the ISTQB testing certification exam by giving tips on how to solve the multiple choice questions correctly with evaluating each option quickly.

If you have any query on the ISTQB testing certification exam, please post it in the comment section below.


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