Mallik asks:

What type of database (SQL) questions asked in interviews for test engineer position (not for database tester)?

This depends on many factors whether these questions are for testing positions at entry level or for experienced testing professionals. The depth of database interview questions depend on the experience of the candidate.

Irrespective of the position, candidate should always be clear and confident about the database concepts. For most software testing positions you need to have database knowledge to perform some database checks. Almost all applications need an interaction with database.

Let’s consider the database interview questions for entry-level software testing positions. For entry level testing positions generally following questions can be asked in interviews:

1) Basic and to some extent nested SQL queries to fetch data from database tables.
2) Examples of database statements for: Create Database, Create table and Drop Table.
3) Concept of “Primary Key”, “Foreign Key” and DB index
4) Examples of Select, Insert, Delete, Alter and Update SQL statements.
5) SQL joins (Inner Join, Left Join, Right Join and Full join) with examples.
Practice SQL join queries on dummy tables and see results.

For experienced level software testing positions, database interview questions depend on the job requirement. For such positions interviewers expect detailed database knowledge from candidates.

One more important point – If you get questions on database SQL queries, never say that “You get all query statements to be executed from developers”. It’s ok to say that you get help from developers to write complex SQL queries, but finally you manage by your own.

Shariff asks:

What is Test Strategy?

In simple words – Test strategy means “How you are going to test the application?” You need to mention the exact process/strategy that you are going to follow when you will get the application for testing.

I see many companies follow test strategy template very strictly. Even without any standard template you can keep this test strategy document simple but still effective.

Simple Tips to Write Test Strategy Document:

1) Include product background in test strategy document. In first paragraph of your test strategy document answer – Why stakeholders want to develop this project? This will help to understand and prioritize things quickly.
2) List all important features you are going to test. If you think some features are not part of this release then mention those features under “Features not to be tested” label.
3) Write down the test approach for your project. Clearly mention what types of testing you are going to conduct?
I.e. Functional testing, UI testing, Integration testing, Load/Stress testing, Security testing etc.
4) Answer questions like: How you are going to perform functional testing? Manual or automation testing? Are you going to execute all test cases from your test management tool?
5) Which bug tracking tool you are going to use? What will be the process when you will find a new bug?
6) What are your test entry and exit criteria?
7) How you will track your testing progress? What metrics are you going to use for tracking test completion?
8 ) Task distribution – Define roles and responsibilities of each team member.
9) What documents you will produce during and after testing phase?
10) What all risk you see in test completion?

If you answer all these questions, I think your test strategy document should be ready!

Ayyappang asks:

I want some more ISTQB questions and papers. Please send me these papers as it will be very helpful for my study

I think I have written many posts earlier on ISTQB sample papers and mock test. You can access all these papers and online mock test on below page:
- Sample ISTQB papers and mock tests

Also I have listed some papers for download on our Resources page.
- ISTQB sample papers with answers for practice

Here are some more resources for ISTQB exam preparation:
- ISTQB Foundation Exam Format & Guidelines to Solve Papers

I hope this will be helpful for you ISTQB exam preparation.
If readers are having some sample ISTQB papers please share with us!

If you want to ask any question please post your question in comment section of this post.

If you like this post bookmark & share it with friends.

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What Types of Database Questions are Asked in Interview for Testing Positions? – Testing Q&A Series

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Each ISTQB mock test contains 40 questions and answers are provided at the end of the page. Mark all answers on separate paper first and then compare the results with answers provided. Try to finish these 40 questions in one hour duration.

ISTQB/ISEB Foundation level exam sample paper 1
ISTQB/ISEB Foundation level exam sample paper 2
ISTQB/ISEB Foundation level exam sample paper 3

If you have more ISTQB certification sample papers to share then please contact me.

We have also shared all ISTQB exam sample papers and mock tests on our resources section. Please visit Testing Resources section to see more software testing resources and free downloads.

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ISTQB Testing Certification Sample Question Papers With Answers

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IBM 000-842 (Rational Functional Tester for Java) Certification is a part of IBM professional certification. You can get this IBM 000-842 RFT certification at these conference centers during this Rational week.

RFT (Rational Functional Tester for Java) IBM certification details:
Test duration in minutes: 75
Approximate number of questions: 54
Passing score: 60
More info on:  Rational Functional Tester

If you wish to take this IBM 000-842 (Rational Functional Tester for Java) Certification Exam at these conference centers, here is a sample question paper for your preparation:

Answers are provided at the page bottom.

Q: 1 How do you start the application under test?
A. use the Windows Start menu
B. simply begin recording
C. open a command line and start the application by typing its name
D. click the Start Application button on the recording toolbar

Q: 2 While recording a script, the recording monitor _____.
A. appears at the conclusion of recording
B. is only displayed on the toolbar
C. does not appear
D. displays a message for each action

Q: 3 What can be tested when recording a verification point?
A. an objects data only
B. an objects data or properties only
C. whether or not the object is working
D. an objects data, properties, or existence

Q: 4 What can you use to select an object as a verification point?
A. the object finder, the object picker, or the object browser
B. the main object browser, the test object browser, or the extra object browser
C. the object finder, the test object browser, or the delay method
D. the delay method, the scripting method, or the pointer method

Q: 5 A recording is started by:
A. Entering script record on the command line
B. creating a script and then pressing the record button in the RFT application
C. starting the application under test
D. Starting RFT

Q: 6 How do you stop recording?
A. click the Stop Recording button on the recording toolbar
B. end the application under test
C. close RFT
D. close the recording monitor

Q: 7 Which three actions are possible with RFT? (Choose three.)
A. use a wizard to substitute literals with datapool variables
B. substitute literals in verification points with datapool variables
C. create a datapool while recording a data-driven script
D. create scripts in c#

Q: 8 You must _____ a script with a datapool before substituting literal values in the script with references to datapool variables.
A. share
B. associate
C. run
D. disassociate

Q: 9 When is the best time to use data-driven testing?
A. when the test only needs to be run once
B. when the test steps change based on the test input data
C. when the test must be run multiple times with different data
D. when the test requires a lot of manual data entry

Q: 10 Functional Tester allows you to import an external datapool from which of the following? (Choose three.)
A. an external .csv file
B. another Functional Tester datapool
C. an existing TestManager datapool
D. an access (.mdb) file

Q: 11 What will the following CallScript do? CallScript (myScript, null, DP_ALL)
A. cause the script to run an infinite number of times
B. cause the script to iterate through the entire datapool
C. cause the script to run through 100 datapool values
D. cause myScript to always pass

Q: 12 what is one way to insert data-driven commands into the test script?
A. use the Insert Data Driven Commands button while recording
B. use the Insert Data Driven Commands button while executing
C. the commands are generated automatically while importing the datapool
D. use the super helper class after recording

Q: 13 What must you do before editing the datapool using an external application?
A. make it a public datapool
B. make it a private datapool
C. export it to a .csv file
D. import it from a .csv file

Q: 14 Which statement is true about an RFT test datapool?
A. It is exclusive for only one test script.
B. It is a collection of related data records.
C. It is automatically generated during script record.
D. It is a collection of related test scripts.

Q: 15 What must you do to view a comparator of a failed verification point from an RFT text log?
A. open a web browser and browse to open the file: \ \\.rftvd for the
verification point you want to view
B. right-click on the test log and select Failed Verification Points from the right-click menu, then select the
verification point you want to view
C. open the test log, right-click on the verification point line you want to view and select View Results from the
right-click menu
D. log results in another format since you cannot open a comparator from a text log

Q: 16 Given an existing TestManager Rational Test project, what are the steps to log results to TestManager?
A. from TestManager, create a new Test Script Type for RFT, then from RFT, select the Functional Test logging preferences to TestManager
B. from RFT, select the Functional Test logging preferences to TestManager, then select the Test Manager project when you run an RFT test
C. from RFT, associate the Rational Test Project with the RFT project, then select the Functional Test logging preferences to TestManager
D. from the Rational Administrator, associate the RFT project to the Rational Test Project, then from RFT, select the Functional Test logging preferences to TestManager

Q: 17 Out of the box, what are the different options for logging RFT tests?
A. HTML, text, custom, TestManager, and none
B. HTML, text, TPTP, TestManager, and none
C. TestManager, CQTM, TPTP, HTML, and none
D. HTML, PDF, text, TestManager, and none

Q: 18 Not including TestManager or custom logging, how can you organize RFT test results?
A. define and follow a naming convention for all test logs
B. define and follow a naming convention for all logs and log subfolders
C. create as many folders in the *_logs project as needed and drag logs into the appropriate folders
D. create additional log projects which are associated with the primary RFT project, (for example, _acceptance_logs)

Q: 19 How do you perform image verification in a test?
A. select Perform Image Verification Point from the Verification Point and Action Wizard
B. select the Perform Properties Verification Point from the Verification Point and Action Wizard, then select only
the .src or other property for the image
C. download and install the RFT Enhancement Pack plug-in from IBM Rational Support
D. download and install the Image Comparator for Rational Functional Tester 2003.06 utility from developer Works

Q: 20 What should the tester open to view Test Objects, Main Data Area and Recognition Data?
A. the test script
B. the test comparator
C. the object map
D. the log viewer

Q: 21 What should the tester do to open the comparator in an HTML log after the test has been played back?
A. select View > Failures from the menu
B. click the View Results link in the test log
C. nothing, because the comparator open automatically
D. select Open > Comparator from the menu

Q: 22 What should the tester view to discover the current script action being executed?
A. playback monitor
B. the execution window
C. the test script
D. the application under test

Q: 23 The two phases of playing back a script are script development and _____.
A. unit testing
B. manual verification
C. reviewing results
D. regression testing

Q: 24 The tester resets their test environment and sets the playback environment. What is the tester ready to do?
A. record the test
B. set recording options
C. view and analyze the results
D. play back the script

Q: 25 If a test fails because the tester has updated the test data, what should the tester do to prevent continued failures?
A. re-record the test
B. use the comparator and update the baseline data
C. nothing, because the test is supposed to fail
D. change the test data

Answers:
———–
1.  Answer: D
2.  Answer: D
3.  Answer: D
4.  Answer: C
5.  Answer: B
6.  Answer: A
7.  Answer: A, B, C
8.  Answer: B
9.  Answer: C
10. Answer: A, B, C
11. Answer: B
12. Answer: A
13. Answer: C
14. Answer: B
15. Answer: B
16. Answer: C
17. Answer: B
18. Answer: A
19. Answer: D
20. Answer: B
21. Answer: B
22. Answer: A
23. Answer: D
24. Answer: D
25. Answer: B

Thanks to J.B.Rajkumar for providing this sample paper for our readers.

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IBM Rational Functional Tester Certification Details and Sample Paper

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What is Equivalence partitioning?
Equivalence partitioning is a method for deriving test cases. In this method, equivalence classes (for input values) are identified such that each member of the class causes the same kind of processing and output to occur. The values at the extremes (start/end values or lower/upper end values) of such class are known as Boundary values. Analyzing the behavior of a system using such values is called Boundary value analysis (BVA).

Here are few sample questions for practice from ISTQB exam papers on Equivalence partitioning and BVA. (Ordered: Simple to little complex)

Question 1
One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class.

a)    17
b)    19
c)    24
d)    21

Solution
The text box accepts numeric values in the range 18 to 25 (18 and 25 are also part of the class). So this class becomes our valid class. But the question is to identify invalid equivalence class. The classes will be as follows:
Class I: values < 18   => invalid class
Class II: 18 to 25       => valid class
Class III: values > 25 => invalid class

17 fall under invalid class. 19, 24 and 21 fall under valid class. So answer is ‘A’

Question 2
In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks.  Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

a)    22,23,26
b)    21,39,40
c)    29,30,31
d)    0,15,22

Solution
The classes will be as follows:
Class I: values < 24   => invalid class
Class II: 24 to 40       => valid class
Class III: values > 40 => invalid class

We have to indentify Valid Equivalence values. Valid Equivalence values will be there in Valid Equivalence class. All the values should be in Class II. So answer is ‘C’

Question 3
One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
a)    BOOK
b)    Book
c)    Boo01k
d)    Book

Solution
Alpha numeric is combination of alphabets and numbers. Hence we have to choose an option which has both of these. A valid equivalence class will consist of both alphabets and numbers. Option ‘c’ contains both alphabets and numbers. So answer is ‘C’

Question 4
The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.

a)    12,16,22
b)    24,27,17
c)    22,23,24
d)    14,15,19

Solution
We have to choose values from same class (it can be valid or invalid class). The classes will be as follows:

Class I: less than 18 (switch turned off)
Class II: 18 to 21
Class III: above 21 (switch turned on)

Only in Option ‘c’ all values are from one class. Hence the answer is ‘C’. (Please note that the question does not talk about valid or invalid classes. It is only about values in same class)

Question 5
A program validates a numeric field as follows: values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?

a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22

Solution
We have to select values which fall in all the equivalence class (valid and invalid both). The classes will be as follows:

Class I: values <= 9   => invalid class
Class II: 10 to 21       => valid class
Class III: values >= 22 => invalid class

All the values from option ‘c’ fall under all different equivalence class. So answer is ‘C’.

Question 6
A program validates a numeric field as follows: values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?

a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21

Solution
We have already come up with the classes as shown in question 5. The boundaries can be identified as 9, 10, 21, and 22. These four values are in option ‘b’. So answer is ‘B’

Question 7
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?
a)    £4000; £5000; £5500
b)    £32001; £34000; £36500
c)    £28000; £28001; £32001
d)    £4000; £4200; £5600

Solution
The classes will be as follows:
Class I   : 0 to £4000          => no tax
Class II  : £4001 to £5500   => 10 % tax
Class III : £5501 to £33500 => 22 % tax
Class IV : £33501 and above => 40 % tax

Select the values which fall in three different equivalence classes. Option ‘d’ has values from three different equivalence classes. So answer is ‘D’.

Question 8
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a)    £28000
b)    £33501
c)    £32001
d)    £1500

Solution
The classes are already divided in question # 7. We have to select a value which is a boundary value (start/end value). 33501 is a boundary value. So answer is ‘C’.

Question 9
Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?

If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured.
Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
a)    17, 18, 19
b)    29, 30, 31
c)    18, 29, 30
d)    17, 29, 31

Solution
The classes will be as follows:
Class I: age < 18       => not insured
Class II: age 18 to 30 => 20 % discount
Class III: age > 30     => no discount

Here we cannot determine if the above classes are valid or invalid, as nothing is mentioned in the question. (But according to our guess we can say I and II are valid and III is invalid. But this is not required here.) We have to select values which are in SAME equivalence partition. Values from option ‘c’ fall in same partition. So answer is ‘C’.

These are few sample questions for practice from ISTQB papers. We will continue to add more ISTQB question papers with answers in coming posts.

About the Author:
This is a guest article by “N. Sandhya Rani”. She is having around 4 years of experience in software testing mostly in manual testing. She is helping many aspirant software testers to clear the ISTQB testing certification exam.

Put your questions related to ISTQB exam in comment section below.

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ISTQB Exam Questions on Equivalence partitioning and Boundary Value Analysis

Thank you so much!

This is a guest article by “N. Sandhya Rani”.

ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ sample questions with answers and detailed evaluation of each option:

1. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-
a) Breadth Test and Depth Test
b) Retesting
c) Confirmation Testing
d) Sanity Testing

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Breadth testing is a test suite that exercises the full functionality of a product but does not test features in detail. Depth testing is a test that exercises a feature of a product in full detail.
b) Option b: Retesting is part of regression
c) Option c: Confirmation testing is a synonym for retesting
d) Option d: Sanity testing does not include full functionality
Maintenance testing includes testing some features in detail (for e.g. environment) and for some features detail testing is not required. It’s a mix of both breadth and depth testing.

So, the answer is ‘A’

2. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects

a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

Evaluating the options:
Consider the first point (i). This is true, Inspection is led by trained moderator. Hence we can eliminate options (a) and (d). Now consider second point. In Inspection pre-meeting preparation is required. So this point is false. Look for option where (i) is true and (ii) is false.

The answer is ‘B’

3. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.

i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up

a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

Evaluating the options:
Formal review process is ’Inspection’. Planning is foremost step. Hence we can eliminate option ’b’. Now we need to kickoff the process, so the second step will be Kick off. That’s it we found the answer. Its ’C’

The answer is ’C’

4. Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off.

Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
a. A,C,B
b. B,C,A
c. A,B,C
d. C,B,A

Evaluating the options:
In State transition testing a test is defined for each state transition. The coverage that is achieved by this testing is called 0-switch or branch coverage. 0-switch coverage is to execute each loop once (No repetition. We should start with initial state and go till end state. It does not test ‘sequence of two state transitions’). In this case the start state is ‘OFF’, and then press of the button turns it on to Speed 1 (i.e. A). Second press turns it on to Speed 2 (i.e. B) and the third press turns it off (i.e. C). Here we do not test the combinations like what if the start state is ‘Speed 1’ or ‘Speed 2’ etc.

An alternate way of solving this is check for the options where it starts with ‘OFF’ state. So we have options ‘a’ and ‘c’ to select from. As per the state diagram from ‘OFF’ state the dryer goes to ‘Speed 1’ and then to ‘Speed 2’. So our answer should start with ‘A’ and end with ‘C’.

The answer is ’C’

5. White Box Techniques are also called as :-
a) Structural Testing
b) Design Based Testing
c) Error Guessing Technique
d) Experience Based Technique

Evaluating the options:
I guess no evaluation is required here. It’s a straight answer. White box techniques are also called as Structural testing. (as it is done using code)

The answer is ‘A’

6. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.

Evaluating the options:
Let’s recall the definition of equivalence partition. It is grouping inputs into valid and invalid classes. Hence any one value from one particular class forms an input. For e.g. input a valid class contains values from 3-5, then any value between 3-5 is considered as an input. All values are supposed to yield same output. Hence one value in this range becomes a test case.

The answer is ‘B’

7. The Test Cases Derived from use cases
a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system
c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

Evaluating the options:
Please refer to Use case related topic in the foundation level guide “Use cases describe the “process flows” through a system based on its actual likely use” (actual likely use is nothing but the real world use of the system). Use cases are useful for uncovering defects. Hence we can eliminate options (c ) and (d). Use case uncovers defects in process flow during real world use of the system.

The answer is ‘A’

8. Exhaustive Testing is
a) Is impractical but possible
b) Is practically possible
c) Is impractical and impossible
d) Is always possible

Evaluating the options:
From the definition given in the syllabus, Exhaustive testing is impossible. But it is possible in trivial cases. Exhaustive testing is not always possible. So eliminate option ‘d’. It is not impossible also. So eliminate option ‘c’. But implementing is impractical. Hence we can conclude that exhaustive testing is impractical but possible

The answer is ‘A’

9. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase
a) Creating test suites from the test cases
b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c) Comparing actual results
d) Designing the Tests

Evaluating the options:
Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. Test implementation does include Creating test suites, executing and comparing results. Hence eliminate options a, b and c. The only option left is ‘D’. Designing activities come before implementation.

The answer is ‘D’

10. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?
a) Statement Testing and coverage
b) Decision Testing and coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Boundary value analysis

Evaluating the options:
Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. We have to choose the one which is not a part of white box technique. Statement, decision, condition are the terms used in white box. So eliminate options a, b and c. Boundary value is part of black box.

The answer is ‘D’

11. A Project risk includes which of the following
a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Organizational factors can be part of project risk.
b) Option b: Poor software characteristics are part of software. Its not a risk
c) Option c: Error prone software delivered. Again it’s a part of software.
d) Option d: Software that does not perform its intended functions. Again it’s a part of software.

The answer is ‘A’

12. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Risks identified can be used to determine the test technique.
b) Option b: Risks can be used to determine the extent of testing required. For e.g. if there are P1 bugs in a software, then it is a risk to release it. Hence we can increase the testing cycle to reduce the risk
c) Option c: If risk areas are identified before hand, then we can prioritize testing to find defects asap.
d) Option d: Risk does not determine the cost of the project. It determines the impact on the project as a whole.
Check for the option where first 3 points are true. Its ‘B’

The answer is ‘B’

13. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Evaluating the options:
Not much explanation is needed in this case. As a tester, we do all the activities mentioned in options (ii), (iii) and (iv).

The answer is ‘B’

14. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objectives
b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

Evaluating the options:
In this case, elimination will work best. Follow-up is not a planning activity. It’s a post task. Hence eliminate option ‘b’. Individual meeting preparation is an activity for individual. It’s not a planning activity. Hence eliminate option ‘d’. Now we are left with 2 options ‘a’ and ‘b’, read those 2-3 times. We can identify that option ‘b’ is most appropriate. Planning phase of formal review does include selecting personnel and allocation of roles. Explaining the objectives is not part of review process. (this is also written in the FL syllabus)

The answer is ‘B’

15. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.
a) Moderator.
b) Scribe
c) Author
d) Manager

Evaluating the options:
I hope there is not confusion here. The answer is scribe.

The answer is ‘B’

16. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-
i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager

a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Evaluating the options:
The question is regarding formal review, means Inspection. First we will try to identify the persons that we are familiar w.r.t Inspection. Manager, Moderator and Scribe are involved in Inspection. So now we have only first 2 options to select from. (other 2 options are eliminated). There is no assistant manager in Inspection.

The answer is ‘B’

17. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through
a) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
b) Pre Meeting Preparations
c) Formal Follow Up Process
d) Includes Metrics

Evaluating the options:
Pre meeting preparation is part of Inspection. Also Walk through is not a formal process. Metrics are part of Inspection. Hence eliminating ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.

The answer is ‘A’

18. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Evaluating the options:
Static analysis cover all the above options except ‘Memory leaks’. (Please refer to the FL syllabus. Its written clearly over there)

The answer is ‘C’

19. Incidents would not be raised against:
a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

Evaluating the options:
The first three options are obvious options for which incidents are raised. The last option can be thought as an enhancement. It is a suggestion from the users and not an incident.

The answer is ‘D’

20. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.
a) Security Testing
b) Recovery Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Functionality Testing

Evaluating the options:
The terms used in the question like detection of threats, virus etc point towards the security issues. Also security testing is a part of Functional testing. In security testing we investigate the threats from malicious outsiders etc.

The answer is ‘A’

21. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Evaluating the options:
The question is about ‘not’ a major task. Option ‘a’ is a major task. So eliminate this. Option ‘b’ is not a major task. (But yes, logging of outcome is important). Option ‘c’ and ‘d’ both are major tasks of Exit criteria. So eliminate these two.

The answer is ‘B’

22. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
a) Load Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Usability Testing

Evaluating the options:
Workloads, performance are terms that come under Load testing. Also as can be seen from the other options, they are not related to load testing. So we can eliminate them.

The answer is ‘A’

23. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is :-
a) System Level Testing
b) Integration Level Testing
c) Unit Level Testing
d) Component Testing

Evaluating the options:
We have to identify the testing activity which finds defects which occur due to interaction or integration. Option ‘a’ is not related to integration. Option ‘c’ is unit testing. Option ‘d’ component is again a synonym for unit testing. Hence eliminating these three options.

The answer is ‘B’

24. Static analysis is best described as:
a) The analysis of batch programs.
b) The reviewing of test plans.
c) The analysis of program code.
d) The use of black box testing.

Evaluating the options:
In this case we have to choose an option, which ‘best’ describes static analysis. Most of the options given here are very close to each other. We have to carefully read them.
a) Option a: Analysis is part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.
b) Option b: Reviews are part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.
c) Option c: Static analysis does analyze program code.
d) Option d: This option ca be ruled out, as black box is a dynamic testing.

The answer is ‘C’

25. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
a) BOOK
b) Book
c) Boo01k
d) book

Evaluating the options:
As we know, alpha numeric is combination of alphabets and numbers. Hence we have to choose an option which has both of these.
a. Option a: contains only alphabets. (to create confusion they are given in capitals)
b. Option b: contains only alphabets. (the only difference from above option is that all letters are not in capitals)
c. Option c: contains both alphabets and numbers
d. Option d: contains only alphabets but in lower case

The answer is ‘C’

26. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:
Test basis comprise of requirements, architecture, design, interfaces. By looking at these words, we can straight away eliminate last two options. Now option ‘a’ is about test analysis and design. This comes under test basis. Option ‘b’ is about implementation and execution which come after the design process. So the best option is ‘a’.

The answer is ‘A’

27. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:
Incident is reporting discrepancies, in other terms its defect/bug. We find defects while execution cycle where we execute the test cases.

The answer is ‘B’

28. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement document

Evaluating the options:
We have to choose an option which does ‘not’ come under Configuration Management (CM). CM is about maintaining the integrity of the products like components, data and documentation.
a) Option a: maintaining the Operating system configuration that has been used in the test cycle is part of CM.
b) Option b: Test documentation is part of CM
c) Option c: Data is part of CM. but here the option is ‘live data’ which is not part of CM. The live data keeps on changing (in real scenario).
d) Option d: Requirements and documents are again part of CM
The only option that does not fall under CM is ‘c’

The answer is ‘C’

29. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:
Hand over is typically a process which is part of closure activities. It is not part of analysis, design or planning activity. Also it is not part of evaluating exit criteria. After closure of test cycle test-ware is handover to the maintenance organization.

The answer is ‘C’

30. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.
a) 12,16,22
b) 24,27,17
c) 22,23,24
d) 14,15,19

Evaluating the options:
Read the question carefully. We have to choose values from same class. So first divide the classes. When temperature falls below 18 switch is turned off. This forms a class (as shown below). When the temperature is more than 21, the switch is turned on. For values between 18 to 21, no action is taken. This also forms a class as shown below.

Class I: less than 18 (switch turned off)
Class II: 18 to 21
Class III: above 21 (switch turned on)

From the given options select the option which has values from only one particular class. Option ‘a’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option ‘b’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option ‘c’ values are in one class. Option ‘d’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. (please note that the question does not talk about valid or invalid classes. It is only about values in same class)

The answer is ‘C’

About the Author:
“N. Sandhya Rani” is having around 4 years of experience in software testing mostly in manual testing. She is helping many aspirant software testers to clear the ISTQB testing certification exam by giving tips on how to solve the multiple choice questions correctly with evaluating each option quickly.

If you have any query on ISTQB testing certification exam, please post it in comment section below.

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As always, I appreciate your valuable comments. Visit below link to post your comment:
ISTQB software testing certification sample question paper with answers – Part II

Thank you so much!

Sandhya will be giving you ISTQB paper pattern and tips on how to solve the questions quickly. To start with, here are 10 sample ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ questions with detailed explanation for answers.

ISTQB question pattern and tips to solve:
ISTQB questions are formatted in such a way that the answers look very much similar. People often choose the one, which they are more familiar with. We should carefully read the question twice or thrice or may be more than that, till we are clear about what is being asked in the question.

Now look at the options carefully. The options are chosen to confuse the candidates. To choose the correct answer, we should start eliminating one by one. Go through each option and check whether it is appropriate or not. If you end up selecting more than one option, repeat the above logic for the answers that you selected. This will definitely work.

Before you start with the question papers, please read the material thoroughly. Practice as many papers as possible. This will help a lot because, when we actually solve the papers, we apply the logic that we know.

ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ sample questions with answers:

1. Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase

a) Test Implementation and execution
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
d) Test Closure Activities

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: as the name suggests these activities are part of the actual implementation cycle. So do not fall under set-up
b) Option b: Analysis and design activities come before implementation. The test environment set-up, identifying any required infrastructure and tools are part of this activity.
c) Option c: These are post implementation activities
d) Option d: These are related to closing activities. This is the last activity.

So, the answer is ‘B’

2. Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Evaluating the options:
Let’s follow a different approach in this case. As can be seen from the above options, determining the exit criteria is definitely not a part of test implementation and execution. So choose the options where (iv) is false. This filters out ‘b’ and ‘d’.

We need to select only from ‘a’ and ‘c’. We only need to analyze option (iii) as (i) and (ii) are marked as true in both the cases. Verification of the test environment is part of the implementation activity. Hence option (iii) is true. This leaves the only option as ‘a’.

So, the answer is ‘A’

3. A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:-

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

a) I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

Evaluating the options:
Let’s use the approach given in question no. 2. Test scripts are not part of the test plan (this must be clear). So choose the options where (ii) is false. So we end up selecting ‘b’ and ‘d’. Now evaluate the option (i), as option (iii) and (iv) are already given as true in both the cases. Test items are part of the test plan. Test items are the modules or features which will be tested and these will be part of the test plan.

So, the answer is ‘B’

4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class
a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21

Evaluating the options:
In this case, first we should identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.

Invalid Class | Valid Class | Invalid Class
Below 18 | 18 to 25 | 26 and above

Option ‘a’ falls under invalid class. Options ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ fall under valid class.

So, the answer is ‘A’

5. In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22

Evaluating the options:
Let’s use the approach given in question 4. Identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.

Invalid Class | Valid Class | Invalid Class
Below 24 | 24 to 40 | 41 and above

The question is to identify valid equivalence values. So all the values must be from ‘Valid class’ only.

a) Option a: all the values are not from valid class
b) Option b: all the values are not from valid class
c) Option c: all the values are from valid class
d) Option d: all the values are not from valid class

So, the answer is ‘C’

6. Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:

a) static testing requires the running of tests through the code
b) static testing includes desk checking
c) static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: is wrong. Static testing has nothing to do with code
b) Option b: correct, static testing does include desk checking
c) Option c: correct, it includes reviews and inspections
d) Option d: correct, it can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

So, the answer is ‘A’

7. Verification involves which of the following:-
i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: The quality of the product can be checked only after building it.
Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
b) Option b: Verification checks that we have built the right product.
c) Option c: it does not help in developing the product
d) Option d: it does not involve monitory activities.

So, the answer is ‘B’

8. Component Testing is also called as :-
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .

a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
d) all of above is true

Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: correct, component testing is also called as unit testing
b) Option b: not sure (but as all the options indicate this as true, we can conclude that Program testing is also called as unit testing)
c) Option c: correct, component testing is also called as module testing
d) Option d: wrong. System component testing comes under system testing.

So, the answer is ‘A’

9. Link Testing is also called as :
a) Component Integration testing
b) Component System Testing
c) Component Sub System Testing
d) Maintenance testing

Evaluating the options:
As the name suggests, this testing is performed by linking (say modules). Now if
we look at the options, only option ‘a’ is performed by linking or integrating
modules/components.

So, the answer is ‘A’

10.

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.
a) A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B–Issue membership, offer no discount. B
b) A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer discount. C
c) A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
d) A – Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

Evaluating the options:

Explanation:
For TC1: follow the path in green color
(The person is Indian resident, so select only ‘True’ options.
The person is aged between 18-55, so select only ‘True’
The person is a married, so again select only ‘True’
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule 4′ will be applied. That is, issue membership and no discount)

For TC3: follow the path in blue color
(The person is not Indian resident, so select only ‘False’ (under Rule 1)
The person is not aged between 18-55. No need to select any path, as it is written “Don’t care”.
The person is married. No need to select any path, as it is written “Don’t care”.
For this person, the actions under ‘Rule1′ will be applied, That is, Don’t issue membership and no discount.)

So, the answer is ‘C’

Note: The answers are based on writers own experience and judgment and may not be 100% correct. If you feel any correction is required please discuss in comments below.

Please feel free to ask any question related to ISTQB exam and testing certifications in comment section below.

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ISTQB question pattern and tips to solve

Thank you so much!

If you are applying for CSTE certification check if you can answer at least 75% of the following test questions. Four and half hour CSTE exam consist of 4 parts, Two multiple choice parts and two essay parts.

Below you will find 20 multiple choice questions from all skill categories. There are around 10 skill categories and I have included 2 questions from each category.

Skill categories:

• Software Testing Principles and Concepts
•  Building the Test Environment
•  Managing the Test Project
•  Test Planning
•  Executing the Test Plan
•  Test Reporting Process
•  User Acceptance Testing
•  Testing Software Developed by Contractors
•  Testing Internal Control
•  Testing New Technologies

These are the latest sample questions from the CSTE CBOK.

Mark the answers somewhere so that you can check the score at the end of the test.

1. The customer’s view of quality means:
a. Meeting requirements
b. Doing it the right way
c. Doing it right the first time
d. Fit for use
e. Doing it on time

2. The testing of a single program, or function, usually performed by the developer is called:
a. Unit testing
b. Integration testing
c. System testing
d. Regression testing
e. Acceptance testing

3. The measure used to evaluate the correctness of a product is called the product:
a. Policy
b. Standard
c. Procedure to do work
d. Procedure to check work
e. Guideline

4. Which of the four components of the test environment is considered to be the most important component of the test environment:
a. Management support
b. Tester competency
c. Test work processes
d. Testing techniques and tools

5. Effective test managers are effective listeners. The type of listening in which the tester is performing an analysis of what the speaker is saying is called:
a. Discriminative listening
b. Comprehensive listening
c. Therapeutic listening
d. Critical listening
e. Appreciative listening

6. To become a CSTE, an individual has a responsibility to accept the standards of conduct defined by the certification board. These standards of conduct are called:
a. Code of ethics
b. Continuing professional education requirement
c. Obtaining references to support experience
d. Joining a professional testing chapter
e. Following the common body of knowledge in the practice of software testing

7. Which of the following are risks that testers face in performing their test activities:
a. Not enough training
b. Lack of test tools
c. Not enough time for testing
d. Rapid change
e. All of the above

8. All of the following are methods to minimize loss due to risk. Which one is not a method to minimize loss due to risk:
a. Reduce opportunity for error
b. Identify error prior to loss
c. Quantify loss
d. Minimize loss
e. Recover loss

9. Defect prevention involves which of the following steps:
a. Identify critical tasks
b. Estimate expected impact
c. Minimize expected impact
d. a, b and c
e. a and b

10. The first step in designing use case is to:
a. Build a system boundary diagram
b. Define acceptance criteria
c. Define use cases
d. Involve users
e. Develop use cases

11. The defect attribute that would help management determine the importance of the defect is called:
a. Defect type
b. Defect severity
c. Defect name
d. Defect location
e. Phase in which defect occurred

12. The system test report is normally written at what point in software development:
a. After unit testing
b. After integration testing
c. After system testing
d. After acceptance testing

13. The primary objective of user acceptance testing is to:
a. Identify requirements defects
b. Identify missing requirements
c. Determine if software is fit for use
d. Validate the correctness of interfaces to other software systems
e. Verify that software is maintainable

14. If IT establishes a measurement team to create measures and metrics to be used in status reporting, that team should include individuals who have:
a. A working knowledge of measures
b. Knowledge in the implementation of statistical process control tools
c. A working understanding of benchmarking techniques
d. Knowledge of the organization’s goals and objectives
e. All of the above

15. What is the difference between testing software developed by a contractor outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your country:
a. Does not meet people needs
b. Cultural differences
c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
d. Relinquishment of control
e. Contains extra features not specified

16. What is the definition of a critical success factor:
a. A specified requirement
b. A software quality factor
c. Factors that must be present
d. A software metric
e. A high cost to implement requirement

17. The condition that represents a potential for loss to an organization is called:
a. Risk
b. Exposure
c. Threat
d. Control
e. Vulnerability

18. A flaw in a software system that may be exploited by an individual for his or her advantage is called:
a. Risk
b. Risk analysis
c. Threat
d. Vulnerability
e. Control

19. The conduct of business of the Internet is called:
a. e-commerce
b. e-business
c. Wireless applications
d. Client-server system
e. Web-based applications

20. The following is described as one of the five levels of maturing a new technology into an IT organization’s work processes. The “People-dependent technology” level is equivalent to what level in SEI’s compatibility maturity model:
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
e. Level 5

Done? Check the answers. 

In coming articles I will emphasize more on sample CSTE essay papers and how to answer multiple choice and essay type questions. You can refer previous software testing certification articles here.

To get more testing tips, register free with your email only.

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Check your eligibility for CSTE certification. Take this sample CSTE examination

Thank you so much!

CSTE mock test paper – Questions and Answers:

1. Define the following along with examples [25 Marks]
a. Boundary Value testing
b. Equivalence testing
c. Error Guessing
d. Desk checking
e. Control Flow analysis

Answer:
a) Boundary value Analysis: – A process of selecting test cases/data by identifying the boundaries that separate valid and invalid conditions. Tests are constructed to test the inside and outside edges of these boundaries, in addition to the actual boundary points. or A selection technique in which test data are chosen to lie along “boundaries” of the input domain [or output range] classes, data structures, procedure parameters, etc. Choices often include maximum, minimum, and trivial values or parameters.

E.g. – Input data 1 to 10 (boundary value)
Test input data 0, 1, 2 to 9, 10, 11

b) Equivalence testing: – The input domain of the system is partitioned into classes of representative values, so that the no of test cases can be limited to one-per-class, which represents the minimum no. of test cases that must be executed.

E.g.- valid data range: 1-10
Test set:-2; 5; 14

c) Error guessing: – Test data selection technique. The selection criterion is to pick values that seem likely to cause errors Error guessing is based mostly upon experience, with some assistance from other techniques such as boundary value analysis. Based on experience, the test designer guesses the types of errors that could occur in a particular type of software and designs test cases to uncover them.

E.g. – For example, if any type of resource is allocated dynamically, a good place to look for errors is in the de-allocation of resources. Are all resources correctly deallocated, or are some lost as the software executes?

d) Desk checking: – Desk checking is conducted by the developer of the system or program. The process involves reviewing the complete product to ensure that it is structurally sound and that the standards and requirements have been met. This is the most traditional means for analyzing a system or program.

e) Control Flow Analysis: – It is based upon graphical representation of the program process. In control flow analysis; the program graphs has nodes which represent a statement or segment possibly ending in an unresolved branch. The graph illustrates the flow of program control from one segment to another as illustrated through branches .the objective of control flow analysis is to determine the potential problems in logic branches that might result in a loop condition or improper processing.

2. You find that there is a senior tester who is making more mistakes than the junior testers. You need to communicate this aspect to the senior tester. Also, you don’t want to loose this tester. How should one go about the constructive criticism? [10 Marks]

Answer:
In the quality approach, it is the responsibility of the supervisor to make His/Her subordinates successful. The effective use of criticism is a tool for improving subordinate performance.

In giving constructive criticism, you should incorporate the following tactics: -

• Do it privately.
• Have the facts.
• Be prepared to help the worker improve His/Her performance.
• Be specific on Expectations.
• Follow a specific process in giving the criticism.

3. Your manager has taken you onboard as a test lead for testing a web-based application. He wants to know what risks you would include in the Test plan. Explain each risk factor that would be a part of your test plan. [20 marks]

Answer:
Web-Based Application primary risk factors:-

A) Security: anything related to the security of the application.
B) Performance:- The amount of computing resources and code required by the system to perform its stated functions.
C) Correctness:-Data entered, processed, and outputted in the system is accurate and complete
D) Access Control:-Assurance that the application system resources will be protected
E) Continuity of processing:-The ability to sustain processing in the event problem occurs
F) Audit Trail:-The capability to substantiate the processing that has occurred.
G) Authorization:-Assurance that the data is processed in accordance with the intents of the management.

General risk or secondary risk’s:-

A) Complex – anything disproportionately large, intricate or convoluted.
B) New – anything that has no history in the product.
C) Changed – anything that has been tampered with or “improved”.
D) Upstream Dependency – anything whose failure will cause cascading failure in the rest of the system.
E) Downstream Dependency – anything that is especially sensitive to failures in the rest of the system.
F) Critical – anything whose failure could cause substantial damage.
G) Precise – anything that must meet its requirements exactly.
H) Popular – anything that will be used a lot.
I) Strategic – anything that has special importance to your business, such as a feature that sets you apart from the competition.
J) Third-party – anything used in the product, but developed outside the project.
K) Distributed – anything spread out in time or space, yet whose elements must work together.
l) Buggy – anything known to have a lot of problems.
M) Recent Failure – anything with a recent history of failure.

4. You are in the contract stage of a project and are developing a comprehensive proposal for a safety critical software system. Your director has consulted you for preparing a guideline document what will enlist user’s role during acceptance testing phase. Indicate the key roles you feel that the user should play during acceptance stage. Also indicate the categories into which the acceptance requirements should fall. [10 Marks]

Answer:
1) Ensure user involvement in developing systems requirement and acceptance criteria.
2) Identify interim and final products for acceptance their acceptance criteria and schedule.
3) Plan how and by whom each acceptance activity will be performed.
4) Plan resources for providing information.
5) Schedule adequate time for buyer staff to receive and examine the products and evaluation prior to acceptance review.
6) Prepare the acceptance plan.
7) Respond to the analysis of project entitles before accepting and rejecting.
8 ) Approve the various interim software products.
9) Perform the final acceptance activities, including the formal acceptance testing at delivery.
10) Make an acceptance decision for each product.

5. What is parallel testing and when do we use parallel testing? Explain with
example? [5 marks]

Answer:
Testing a new or an altered data processing system with the same source data that is used in another system. The other system is considered as the standard of comparison. OR we can say that parallel testing requires the same input data be run through two versions of the same application.
Parallel testing should be used when there is uncertainty regarding the correctness of processing of the new application. And old and new versions of the applications are same.
E.g.-
1) Operate the old and new version of the payroll system to determine that the paychecks from both systems are reconcilable.
2) Run the old version of the application system to ensure that the operational status of the old system has been maintained in the event that problems are encountered in the new application.

6. What is the difference between testing Techniques and tools? Give examples. [5 marks]

Answer:
Testing technique: – Is a process for ensuring that some aspects of the application system or unit functions properly there may be few techniques but many tools.

Tools: – Is a vehicle for performing a test process. The tool is a resource to the tester, but itself is insufficient to conduct testing

E.g.:- The swinging of hammer to drive the nail. The hammer is a tool, and swinging the hammer is a technique. The concept of tools and technique is important in the testing process. It is a combination of the two that enables the test process to be performed. The tester should first understand the testing techniques and then understand the tools that can be used with each of the technique.

7. Quality control activities are focused on identifying defects in the actual products produced; however your boss wants you to identify and define processes that would prevent defects. How would you explain to him to distinguish between QA and QC responsibilities? [10 Marks]

Answer:

Quality Assurance:
1) A planned and systematic set of activities necessary to provide adequate confidence that requirements are properly established and products or services conform to specified requirements
2) An activity that establishes and evaluates the processes to produce the products.
3) Helps establish processes.
4) Sets up measurements programs to evaluate processes.
5) Identifies weaknesses in processes and improves them.
6) QA is the responsibility of the entire team.
7) Prevents the introduction of issues or defects

Quality Control:
1) The process by which product quality is compared with applicable standards; and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.
2) An activity which verifies if the product meets pre-defined standards.
3) Implements the process.
4) Verifies if specific attribute(s) are in a specific product or service
5) Identifies defects for the primary purpose of correcting defects.
6) QC is the responsibility of the tester.
7) Detects, reports and corrects defects

8 ) Differentiate between Transaction flow modeling, Finite state modeling, Data flow modeling and Timing modeling? [10 Marks]

Answer:
Transaction Flow modeling: -The nodes represent the steps in transactions. The links
represent the logical connection between steps.

Finite state modeling:-The nodes represent the different user observable states of the software. The links represent the transitions that occur to move from state to state.

Data flow modeling:-The nodes represent the data objects. The links represent the transformations that occur to translate one data object to another.

Timing Modeling:-The nodes are Program Objects. The links are sequential connections between the program objects. The link weights are used to specify the required execution times as program executes.

9) List what you think are the two primary goals of testing
[5 Marks]

Answer:
1) Determine whether the system meets specifications (producer view)
2) determine whether the system meets business and user needs (Customer view)

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CSTE software testing certification exam question pattern

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Certifications In software Testing some history:

In 1980 Quality Assurance Institute (QAI) established a association to represent Quality Assurance professionals. Currently many beginners and advanced level certifications are offered by QAI. Certifications like CSQA (Certified Software Quality Analyst), CSTE (Certified Software Test Engineer), CSPM (Certified Software Project Manager) and Some Advanced level certifications like CMST (Certified Manager of Software Testing), CMSQ (Certified Manager of Software Quality).

Normally people having these certifications are recognized as proficient in Quality Assurance. (As what they believe )  But there is definitely a plus when it’s comes to your promotion. Other advantage of having certification what I feel is you will brush up the testing knowledge and methodologies while preparing for exam.

There are some prerequisite you should meet before applying for these software Testing certifications. These depends on the certification you are applying for plus some common prerequisites like:

•  4 years degree from reputed college + 2 years of IT experience OR
•  3 years degree + 3 years UT experience OR
•  2 years degree + 4 years IT experience OR
•  6 years IT experience OR

AND  Should be worked in IT field for the last 18 months.

To apply for the certification fill out the form available at Testing certification application form. Please check which certification you want to pursue and then fill the form accordingly.

Please note that the application fee for any fresh certification is US $350 in which you can also get the exam guide CD. You must mail or fax the above filled application form to the appropriate address provided in the application form with your fees payment.

Note that these certifications exams are conducted in the location of your choice. Your application is first reviewed by QAI board and on approval further notes are sent to the local exam centers approved by QAI.  You can check the current year schedule and locations of testing certification here.

For example if you want to give software testing certification exam in India, Pune center (MIT college) you must fill the application form before 15th October 2007 and can give the exam on 15th December 2007.  Total 2 retakes are allowed for any certification. If you still not cleared the exam then forget about the testing certifications and even Testing.

More guide on available certifications and filling the form can be found here.

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How to apply for Software Testing Certification exam?

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Here I am listing some important software testing certifications:
See the description to know why should one go for the respective certification.

CQA-Certified Quality Analyst:
For Professional level of competence in the principles and practices of quality assurance in the IT profession.

CSTE-Certified Software Test Engineer:
Intended to establish standards for initial qualification and provide direction for the testing function through an aggressive educational program.

CSTP- Certified Software Test Professional:
To teach individuals from different disciplines sound and effective testing techniques and methods and to certify them as Software Testing Professionals.

CQE- Quality Engineer Certificate:
CQE is designed for those who understand the principles of product and service quality evaluation and control.

Quality Manager Certification:
For those who understand quality principles and standards in relation to organization and human resource management

CSQE- Certified Software Quality Engineer:
CSQE is designed for those who have a comprehensive understanding of software quality development and implementation; have a thorough understanding of software inspection and testing, verification, and validation; and can implement software development and maintenance processes and methods

CQIA- Quality Improvement Associate Certificate:
CQIA is designed to assess basic knowledge of quality tools and their uses by individuals who are involved in quality improvement projects, but do not necessarily come from traditional quality areas.

To apply for any of the certification or to know more in detail about any certification you can refer following links:

ASQ American society for quality Certified Software Quality Engineer (CSQE)
American society for quality Quality Improvement Associate
SSBB Six sigma black belt certification
ISEBQualification in software testing
ISTQB Certified tester International software quality institute
Mercury tools certifications
CSQA Certified software quality analyst
Rational certifications
Segue tools certifications

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I just wanted to thank you for subscribing to SoftwareTestingHelp.com. This blog is a success because of you and your support. Here's to your success!

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Software Testing Certifications

Thank you so much!